Mississippi Biology 1 Test Preparation Workbook Help for the Mississippi Biology 1 Subject Area Test

Transcript

Mississippi Biology 1 Test Preparation Workbook Help for the Mississippi Biology 1 Subject Area Test Page 1 Mississippi Biology 1 Test Preparation Workbook Help for the Mississippi Biology 1 Subject Area Test Page 2 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Copyright © by Houghton Mifflin Harcourt Publishing Company All rights reserved. No part of this work may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying or recording, or by any information storage or retrieval system, without the prior written permission of the copyright owner unless such copying is expressly permitted by federal copyright law. Permission is hereby granted to teachers using this workbook to photocopy tests from this publication in classroom quantities for instructional use and not for resale. Requests for information on other matters regarding duplication of this work should be addressed to Houghton Mifflin Harcourt Publishing Company, Attn: Contracts, Copyrights, and Licensing, 9400 SouthPark Center Loop, Orlando, Florida 32819. Printed in the U.S.A. ISBN-13 978-0-547-28204-6 ISBN-10 0-547-28204-4 1 2 3 1417 12 11 10 09 If you have received these materials as examination copies free of charge, Houghton Mifflin Harcourt Publishing Company retains title to the materials and they may not be resold. Resale of examination copies is strictly prohibited. Possession of this publication in print format does not entitle users to convert this publication, or any portion of it, into electronic format. Page 3 iii © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Contents Mississippi Biology 1 Test Preparation Workbook To the Teacher . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . iv Unit 1: Nature of Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 Unit 2: Biochemistry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .16 Unit 3: Ecology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .24 Unit 4: Structure and Function . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .37 Unit 5: Heredity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .55 Unit 6: Evolution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .63 Biology Practice Test 1 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .80 Biology Practice Test 2 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 102 Answer Grids . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 125 Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 129 Page 4 iv © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y These practice activities are correlated to Mississippi Science Frameworks for Biology 1 and designed to prepare your students to take the Mississippi Biology 1 Subject Area Test. The practice tests reflect the type of wording likely to be encountered on the actual Mississippi Biology 1 Subject Area Test. To the Teacher Page 5 Name Date 1 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 1. Ada is planning a field investigation to compare the numbers of insects and spiders in a one- square-meter area she has marked outdoors. Ada knows that insects make up the largest group of arthropods. Which would be the MOST accurate prediction for Ada to make before she starts her investigation? A The marked area will contain more spiders than insects. B The marked area will contain equal numbers of insects and spiders. C The marked area will contain more insects than spiders. D The marked area will contain more centipedes and millipedes than insects and spiders. 2. Every year, monarch butterflies travel thousands of miles from their summer homes in north- ern states and Canada to wintering spots in Mexico and southern California. In spring, they make the journey back again. However, the butterflies die before they reach their northern homes. New butterflies, hatched from eggs laid by migrating monarchs, complete the journey. A scientist wanted to know how the new butterflies found their way to their northern homes if they had never been there before. Which of the following is NOT a testable hypothesis about monarch migratory behavior? A Monarchs follow routes that have many milkweed plants. B Monarchs are prettier than other types of butterflies. C Monarchs can sense Earth’s magnetic field. D Monarchs can smell the remains of the last season’s dead monarchs. 3. The table below lists human population figures from 1804 to 1999. Year Human Population Growth (Billions) 1804 1 1927 2 1960 3 1975 4 1987 5 1999 6 Which graph MOST CLOSELY represents human population growth based on the data above? A Population C Population B Population D Population Unit 1 Nature of Science Page 6 2 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 4. A sample of digestive juice was removed from the stomach of a pig. The juice was placed in a test tube, along with some grains of wheat. A second, identical test tube that contained an equal number of wheat grains was set up. However, pure water was used rather than digestive juice. The test tubes were kept at 40°C, which is about the temperature inside a pig’s stomach. After eight hours, the grains of wheat in the digestive juice had broken apart into tiny par- ticles. The grains of wheat in the water were wet but were otherwise unchanged. What was the dependent variable in this experiment? A temperature B wheat grains C the liquid in the test tube D pig physiology 5. A scientist wants to determine how water temperature affects the development of fish eggs. Which of the following would be an appropriate control group for such an experiment? A Ice is added to the water of one group of fish eggs and the tank is covered. B One group of fish eggs and water is placed in a sunny window. C The water of one group of fish eggs is kept at the same temperature as would be found in nature. D The water of one group of fish eggs is kept at the same temperature as would be found in nature and the tank is covered. 6. A student conducted an experiment that investigated how light affects the growth rates of plants. 123 cm In the illustration above, how many centimeters (to the closest 0.1 cm) taller is the plant on the right than the plant on the left? A 0.3 cm B 0.5 cm C 1 cm D 5 cm Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 7 Name Date 3 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 7. A student learns about the special characteristics of water in biology class. She knows that water will rise through a narrow tube through capillary action. Which of the following experi- ments would demonstrate that water has this ability? A placing a bouquet of white carnations in water containing blue dye and noting that after a time, the flowers turn blue B filling a container to the very top with water and noting that after the water is placed in freezing conditions, the ice has expanded above the brim of the container C heating an identical mass of water and metal to the same temperature and noting that after a time, the metal has cooled faster than the water has D taking the pH of water and finding that it is exactly neutral 8. Which of the following would be an appropriate safety procedure when working in the laboratory? A wearing safety goggles when pouring an acidic substance B tasting a chemical to determine if it is metallic C placing a microscope near the edge of the table to get a better view D taking shortcuts in a laboratory procedure to save time 9. Jonathan marked off a square-meter area on a rocky beach. He then counted the number of sea urchins, starfish, and mussels living in the area. He wants to show the results of his inves- tigation in a visual display. Which of the following is the BEST way for Jonathan to compare the numbers of different animals on the beach? A a concept map B a flow chart C a line graph D a bar graph 10. A biologist wanted to determine why there was a decline in the number of salamanders. Based on his observations, he suggested that acid rain might be responsible. What would scientists call his suggestion? A a conclusion B a hypothesis C a theory D a scientific “truth” Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 8 4 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 11. Which of the following hypotheses is testable? A Snails eat less food when their environment is dry. B Snails have thoughts similar to that of earthworms. C Snails become depressed when their environment is dry. D Snails will evolve into organisms that only live in dry environments. 12. Which of the following accurately describes a control group? A It requires a lead scientist who controls a group of scientists conducting an experiment. B It is always registered with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). C It is the group in an experiment that receives no experimental treatment. D It provides the answer to a problem posed by a theory. 13. A biology class has been observing the population growth of the species Paramecium caudatum for 18 days. Food was occasionally added to the test tube in which the paramecia were grown. The data are shown in the graph below. 100 50 0 3 6 9 12 15 18 Days Number of Paramecium per mL What is the carrying capacity of the test-tube environment as long as food is added? A about 10 paramecia B about 50 paramecia C about 65 paramecia D about 100 paramecia Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 9 Name Date 5 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 14. In 2005, infectious disease researchers recognized a new form of bird flu. The disease was deadly to birds but not very infectious to humans. Health officials feared that the virus could mutate to become highly infectious to humans. Diseases spread to new areas or a new host when people come into contact with a pathogen in a new way. Changing environmental con- ditions can cause a disease host to multiply rapidly. In this way, human behavior plays an important role in emerging disease. (UMAN January February March April 0 5 10 25 20 15 .UMBER Turkey Iraq Indonesia Egypt Djibouti China Cambodia Azerbaijan According to the chart, how did the incidence of new cases of bird flu change between January 2006 and April 2006? A New cases of bird flu decreased steadily. B New cases of bird flu increased through March and then decreased. C No new cases of bird flu were detected during these months. D New cases of bird flu increased exponentially, likely because the virus spread from person to person. Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 10 6 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 15. The illustration below depicts a paramecium. Paramecia have star-shaped organelles called contrac- tile vacuoles that move water from inside to outside the cell. The data presented in the table below were obtained in an experiment in which paramecia were placed in different salt concentrations. The rate at which the contractile vacuole contracted to pump out excess water was recorded. contractile vacuole micronucleus cell macronucleus cilia gullet Salt concentration Rate of contractile vacuole contractions/minute Very high 2 High 8 Medium 15 Low 22 Very low 30 How could you explain the observed relationship between the rate of contractile vacuole con- traction and the salt concentration? A When the salt concentration outside the cell is very high, diffusion causes water to move inside the cell, and the contractile vacuole has to contract more rapidly. B When the salt concentration outside the cell is very low, diffusion causes water to move outside the cell, and the contractile vacuole has to contract more rapidly. C When the salt concentration outside the cell is very high, diffusion causes water to move outside the cell, and the contractile vacuole does not need to contract as rapidly. D When the salt concentration outside the cell is very low, diffusion causes water to move outside the cell, and the contractile vacuole does not need to contract as rapidly. 16. The graph below shows changes in truffle harvesting in an oak forest over a period of 40 years. Changes in Truffle Harvest and Oak Forest Growth 900 800 700 600 500 400 300 200 100 0 225 200 175 150 125 100 75 50 25 0 1950 1990 1980 1960 1970 Year Oak forest Truffles Truffles harvested (kg) Oak forest area (km 2 ) Which statement BEST describes the relationship between the oak forest and the truffle population? A As the amount of oak forest declined, the number of truffles available for harvest increased. B As the amount of oak forest declined, the number of truffles available for harvest also declined. C The number of truffles available for harvest is inversely proportional to the area of oak forest. D Even though both the area of oak forest and number of truffles decreased, there is no rela- tionship between the two. Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 11 Name Date 7 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 17. Transpiration, the loss of water vapor from leaves, is an important function in plants. The loss of water vapor creates a force that pulls water up from the roots through the stem. Stomata play an important role in transpiration. Guard cells around stomata in plant leaves open to let in carbon dioxide. As they open, water vapor escapes (see Figure 1). Humidity has an effect on the rate of transpiration. Figure 2 shows that a plant in low humidity (Line A) has a high rate of transpiration, moving water a greater distance in the plant. A plant in high humidity (Line B) has a lower rate of transpiration, moving water a shorter distance in the plant. Figure 1 Figure 2 4RANSPIRATION $ISTANCE MOVED MM 4IME IN 5 10 15 10 0 20 30 40 A B Relate the graph to a tree growing in a tropical rain forest. A Because tropical rain forests tend to have very high humidity, a tree living there would not need transpiration at all. B Tropical rain forests have low humidity, so the transpiration rate of a tree living there would best be represented by Line A. C Tropical rain forests have high humidity, so the transpiration rate of a tree living there would best be represented by Line B. D Tropical rain forests have high humidity, so the transpiration rate of a tree living there would best be represented by Line A. 18. Research shows that higher levels of carbon dioxide in the air favor the growth of fast- growing, weedy plant species. Which statement BEST evaluates the impact of this research on our understanding of the environment? A Weedy species produce more carbon dioxide. B Over time, weeds will not grow in areas with lower carbon dioxide levels. C Weedy species will eventually go extinct due to increased carbon dioxide levels. D Over time, increased carbon dioxide levels may result in different plant communities. Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 12 8 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 19. Parasitic leeches attach to a host and cut or digest a hole in the host’s skin. The leech then secretes anticoagulants and an anesthetic into the host’s blood. The strongest anticoagulant a leech produces, called hirudin, is being produced through genetic engineering. Why are scien- tists interested in producing hirudin? A to treat pain in human patients B to treat clotting disorders in human patients C to remove blood from human patients without the use of needles D to study the effects of long-term leech attachment 20. The ion (salt) concentration of sea water is three times that of most marine fishes’ tissues. As a result, these fishes lose water to the environment through osmosis. To make up for the lost water, fishes drink sea water and pump out the excess salt through their gills. Freshwater fishes have the opposite problem. Their bodies contain more salt than the surrounding water, so they tend to take in water by osmosis. The additional water dilutes their body salts. Freshwater fishes regain salts by actively taking them in from their environment. Because of these challenges, few fish can move between salt water and fresh water. Excreted ion concentration Ion Excretion in Fish Distance traveled Figure 1 shows ion excretion in a fish as it moves from one body of water to another. What kind of water is the fish initially swimming in? A fresh water B salt water C brackish water D hypersaline water Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 13 Name Date 9 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 21. The diagram below shows the results of a laboratory experiment that defined some similarities and differences between five animals. ANIMAL CLADOGRAM A scientist wants to draw conclusions about all mammals based on the results of the study above that included five animals: a house cat, a leopard, a goat, a frog, and a seal. Her peers suggest that the data from other studies might better support her conclusions. Why might this experiment be a poor choice for finding data that support her conclusions? A The study does not include mammals, so she cannot use the data to draw conclusions about mammals. B The study includes only a few mammals, so she cannot use the data to draw conclusions safely about all mammals. C The study includes only vertebrates, so she cannot use the data to draw conclusions about invertebrate mammals. D The study includes only mammals, so she cannot use the data to make a conclusion. 22. DNA sequences in humans and chimpanzees are very similar. Which of the following is the MOST reasonable conclusion based on this information? A Humans must have a direct ancestor that is a chimpanzee. B Chimpanzees must have single-stranded DNA. C Humans and chimpanzees must have a recent common ancestor. D Humans and chimpanzees are the same species. Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 14 10 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 23. The graph is from an experiment where total light exposure was adjusted for three groups of rats. Each group had 12 rats and each group was exposed to different amounts of light versus dark in a 24-hour period for three months. Food consumption was measured in each group following a 24-hour period. Food pellets are reported as means per group for three months. (Note: All rats used in the experiment were the same age and breed. All were fed the same kind of food pellets.) ,IGHT !NIMAL Which of the following do results of the experiment BEST support? A Food consumption is genetically predetermined. B Food consumption is determined solely by environmental factors. C Food consumption is unaffected by environmental factors. D Food consumption is influenced by environmental factors. 24. Explain what relationship exists between the body temperature of birds and their ability to fly. A There is no relationship between the body temperature of birds and their ability to fly. B Birds have a higher average body temperature than mammals do because of a fast metabo- lism needed to produce energy for flight. C Birds need a high body temperature to keep them warm as they fly into the cooler, upper air of the atmosphere. D Birds need a cooler body temperature because when in flight, there is no way to escape from the heat of the sun. Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 15 Name Date 11 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 25. A hypothesis states that taking drugs known as “gateway drugs,” which include nicotine and marijuana, could make an individual more likely to use stronger illegal drugs. To test this idea, a group of researchers divided young rats into two groups. For one week, they injected one group with saline (salt solution) and the other group with methylphenidate (MP). MP, which is used to treat attention disorders, is in the same class of drugs as cocaine and is con- sidered a gateway drug. The researchers then inserted catheters in the rats so that as adults they could self-administer very low doses of cocaine with a pump by poking their heads into one of two holes. To be sure the animals were not randomly selecting cocaine, the researchers designed the experiment so that only one hole would produce a dose of cocaine. The research- ers created the graph in Figure 1 to illustrate the results of the experiment over a five-day period. On the graph, Sal represents saline. )NFUSIONS 0 1 2 3 4 5 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 Sal P retreated MP P retreated $AYS Based on the graph, what would be an accurate statement regarding the effect of pretreatment with MP? A Animals pretreated with MP were less likely to self-administer cocaine. B Animals pretreated with MP were more likely to self-administer cocaine. C Animals pretreated with MP self-administered the same amount of cocaine as control animals. D Animals pretreated with MP did not self-administer cocaine. Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 16 12 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 26. Three bodies were found at what appeared to be the same crime scene. Police used yellow tape to block off the area. Crime scene investigators arrived to take pictures and collect evidence of fingerprints and bloodstains and to look for other evidence, such as tire tracks, footprints, and bullet holes. Postmortem Events and Onset Times Event 1 hour 3 hours 5 hours 10 hours 12 hours 24 hours Rigor mortis None Beginning Obvious rigor Obvious, but not maximum Maximum Livor mortis Beginning Obvious, but not set Obvious, but not maximum Maximum lividity Algor mortis 97°F 94°F 91°F 84°F 80°F Above 80°F Decomposition Green skin on abdomen It was 11:00 p.m. when pathologists from the coroner’s lab began their examinations to esti- mate time of death. Body #1 and body #2 showed the beginning signs of rigor mortis and some red blotches on the skin, and the temperature of the bodies was 92°F. Use the chart to predict the time at which the coroner’s office estimated the deaths happened. A between 6:00 .. and 8:00 .. B between 5:00 .. and 6:00 .. C between 8:00 .. and 10:00 .. D at exactly 7:00 .. Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 17 Name Date 13 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Use the information below to answer questions 27 through 29. When testing a hypothesis, a scientist’s expectations can affect what he or she actually observes. For this reason, it is important for scientist pported by scientific data, not by opinions. Data that are made up or changed to fit expectations have no value. When possible, scientists will repeat experiments to verify their findings. A hypothesis cannot be examined usefully i n a scientific way without enough data. Just one example is never enough to prove something true. However, one example could prove that something is not true. It is just as important to keep accurate records of data that do not support the hypothesis as records that do support the hypoth- esis. If the hypothesis is not supported, it will need to be modified. Accurate records guide the scientist and lead to better hypotheses. Clear and accurate records are also needed so that other researchers can repeat an experiment. A single result is never enough support for a hypothesis. For it to be accepted, researchers in another lab must be able to repeat the experiment and obtain the same results. If the record is incomplete, unclear, or inac- curate, repeating the experiment is difficult or impossible. Always write neatly and record data in an organized way. By keeping information organized, tables can help make sure that data are accurate. Sample Data: Volume of an Irregular Solid Total volume (mL) Volume of water only (mL) Volume of object (mL) Trial 1 17.5 10.5 7.0 Trial 2 14.5 9.0 5.5 Trial 3 21.5 10.0 11.5 Average 17.8 9.8 8.0 27. The total volume shown for Trial 3 on the data table on the previous page appears to be too high. What should the person doing the experiment do about that measurement? A Ignore it because it is obviously wrong. B Change the value so all the measurements match one another. C Keep making measurements until the right one is observed and then record that one. D Record the data that appear to be incorrect and then try to find an explanation. 28. It is important that research results are always recorded A quietly. B accurately and clearly. C in blue ink. D unless they are wrong. Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 18 14 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 29. What can you conclude if you perform one test and the results support the hypothesis with which you started? A The hypothesis is correct. B The data were recorded incorrectly. C More experiments are needed to confirm the result. D The hypothesis has become a theory. Use the information below to answer questions 30 through 32. Scientific investigations are a continual process. When the results of an experiment are reported, they are reviewed and compared to existing theories. Even after results are reviewed and accepted by the scien- tific community for publication, the investigation of the topic may not be finished. New evidence may become available. The scientist may change the hypothesis based on the new evidence. In other cases, the scientist may have more questions that arise from the original evidence. New information constantly challenges theories that exist. In the process, scientific knowledge grows. Each advance leads to new questions, new experiments, and sometimes, new theories. For example, in the midtwentieth century, scientists discovered that magnetic rocks on the sea floor are oriented in alternat- ing directions. This discovery showed that Earth’s magnetic poles are not fixed. The north and south poles reverse periodically. This discovery, once it was confirmed, caused scientists to revise several theories. The fact that the magnetic fields can reverse raised new questions about the nature of Earth’s core. These ques- tions led to new scientific investigations and new theories about Earth’s composition and history. When the alternating stripes of magnetic rock were found, new research was designed to explain the stripes. This research helped confirm that the continents move as the sea floor spreads.The new theory of plate tecton- ics was developed, based partly on this evidence. Each new discovery leads to new questions. Possible answers to these questions—hypotheses—are studied. These experiments, in turn, lead to new discoveries and new questions. 30. After an investigation, what do scientists do with their results? A Hide them from other scientists. B Share them only with their family. C Put them away for several years to see if they hold up. D Communicate their results to other scientists. 31. In what way is a successful experiment never the final step in a scientific investigation? A The results may later be proven wrong. B Scientist have to keep investigating so that they have work to do. C The data from an experiment lead to new questions and further investigation. D The experiment is not complete until a new theory is proposed. Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 19 Name Date 15 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 32. How did the confirmation of magnetic striping on the sea floor lead to new discoveries in plate tectonics? A The new information helped answer questions about the movement of continents. B The results proved that Earth’s magnetic field is strong enough to affect rocks. C The reversal of the magnetic poles is the force that drives plate tectonics. D The discovery helped scientists get new funding to do research in plate tectonics. 33. Lisa made a hypothesis that gravity causes all things to fall to the ground. Her sister pointed out that helium balloons move away from the ground. Lisa should A throw out her hypothesis and do a different research project. B try to find out why helium balloons are different from most objects. C ignore her sister and keep testing her own hypothesis. D assume that gravity does not affect helium balloons. 34. Mark is investigating the properties of rocks. His hypothesis is that all rocks are very hard. What observation might cause him to revise his hypothesis? A A piece of quartzite is clear and colorless. B A piece of granite did not break when he struck it with a hammer. C Mark can crumble a piece of shale in his hand. D A piece of pumice floats on water. 35. Which term below best describes a hypothesis? A the result of an experiment B a well-tested explanation for why something happens C a random guess about what causes something D a possible explanation of an observation or result Unit 1 continued Nature of Science Page 20 16 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 1. The following diagram illustrates a glucose molecule. C O C C C C H OH H H OH CH2OH H OH OH H Which of the following describes how the body uses molecules like the one illustrated above? A Sugars form carbohydrates, which are linked together to form fats that store energy. B Sugars form carbohydrates, which are broken down to release chemical energy that is used by the body’s cells. C Sugars are broken down into proteins that become the building blocks of the body’s tissues. D Carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, which is stored inside the body’s cells. 2. What is the attractive force between two of the same kind of particle? A adhesion B capillary action C cohesion D polarity 3. Atoms, which have no electric charge, consist of positively charged protons, negatively charged electrons, and electrically neutral neutrons. Predict what would happen if one or more electrons were removed from an atom. A The atom would acquire an overall positive charge, because it would have more protons than electrons. B The atom would acquire an overall negative charge, because its electrons would be out of balance. C The atom would remain electrically neutral, because protons, not electrons, determine overall charge. D The atom would acquire an overall negative charge, because it would have fewer electrons than protons. Unit 2 Biochemistry Page 21 Name Date 17 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 4. Surface carbohydrates, branching chains of sugar units on the surface of some bacteria, are MOST similar to which of the following? A artificial sweetener B wood used for a campfire C a metal personal identification bracelet D the hide of an animal 5. Examine the chart below. Substance pH Milk 6.4 Tomatoes 4.2 Egg whites 7.8 Lemons 2.3 Based on the information in the chart, which of the substances listed has the greatest number of hydrogen ions? A milk B tomatoes C egg white D lemons 6. Water is one of the most important nonliving (abiotic) components of any ecosystem. Water passes through plants and evaporates from their leaves in a process known as A photosynthesis. B precipitation. C respiration. D transpiration. 7. Explain what happens when you water a plant that has drooping leaves. A The environment changes from isotonic to hypotonic, water moves into cells by osmosis, vesicles in the plant cells swell, and the leaves stop drooping. B The environment changes from hypotonic to hypertonic, the cytoplasm swells, and the leaves stop drooping. C The environment changes from isotonic to hypertonic, mitochondria in the plant cells take up the additional water, and the leaves stop drooping. D The sudden movement of water by osmosis into the plant cells causes the cells to swell and burst. Unit 2 continued Biochemistry Page 22 18 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 8. Which description represents the effects of osmosis on a plant cell when the concentration of sugar particles is greater inside the cell than outside the cell? A Water diffuses out of the cell, and the cell shrinks. B Water moves into and out of the cell at equal rates, and cell size remains the same. C Water diffuses into the cell, and the cell swells. D Water is blocked from moving into or out of the cell, and cell size remains the same. 9. Cells require more energy from food than is actually needed to perform their functions. Only about 60% of the Calories in a food are used by the body to perform cellular functions. What accounts for the other 40% of Calories? A released thermal energy B stored thermal energy C energy stored in chemical bonds D energy stored in fats 10. The diagram below shows steps involved in cellular respiration. Which of the following processes of respiration could take place within an airtight bottle? A electron transport B Krebs cycle C fermentation D breakdown of starch Unit 2 continued Biochemistry Page 23 Name Date 19 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 11. What is the primary source of energy for photosynthesis? A ATP B fermentation C heat D sunlight 12. Which of the following processes is important to a runner at the end of a marathon? A alcoholic fermentation to release carbon dioxide B the electron transport chain to produce ATP C the Krebs cycle to produce NADH and FADH2 D lactic acid fermentation to produce ATP without oxygen 13. What effect does a cold, sunny day have on the rate of photosynthesis? A The abundant sunshine speeds up photosynthesis. B The amount of sunlight and the temperature have no effect on photosynthesis. C Cold temperatures decrease the activity of some enzymes, so photosynthesis slows down. D Photosynthesis stops because the chloroplasts freeze. 14. Which of the following comprises an ATP molecule? A adenine, the sugar deoxyribose, and two phosphate groups B a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and the sugar ribose C adenine, the sugar ribose, and three phosphate groups D a complex molecule of amino acids surrounding an iron atom Unit 2 continued Biochemistry Page 24 20 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 15. Which of the following is correct concerning the relative Caloric values of organic molecules? A Fats contain fewer Calories than proteins or carbohydrates because of their low energy bonds. B Carbohydrates produce more Calories than any other type of food. C Lipids are used as storage molecules, because breaking their bonds releases more Calories than breaking bonds in sugars or proteins. D Proteins are essentially impossible to break down metabolically, so they provide close to zero Calories per gram. 16. The following illustration is of an HIV particle. What is the function of the glycoproteins on the outside of the virus? A to carry genetic material B to help the virus invade cells C to propel the virus forward D to protect the HIV particle from antibiotics Unit 2 continued Biochemistry Page 25 Name Date 21 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 17. Latecia conducted an experimental investigation of the gas production of a water plant. She placed a beaker upside down over a water plant submerged in water and collected the gas that the water plant produced when kept in sunlight. After several days, a large bubble of gas col- lected in the upside-down beaker. Given that the gas comes from the water plant, infer the contents of the bubble of gas col- lected in the test tube. A The gas contains one of the products of respiration, oxygen. B The gas contains one of the products of photosynthesis, oxygen. C The gas contains one of the reactants of respiration, carbon dioxide. D The gas contains one of the products of photosynthesis, carbon dioxide. 18. Which of the following correctly describes the way animals get their nutrition? A They make their own food through a process called photosynthesis. B They eat other organisms, their parts, or products. C They decompose dead plant matter. D They make their own food through a process called cellular respiration. 19. Muscles use ATP as an energy source for contraction. Usually, ATP is produced in the pres- ence of oxygen. What happens when oxygen cannot be delivered fast enough to keep up with a muscle’s demand for ATP? A The muscle tissue begins to die. B Muscles break down glucose in a process called anaerobic respiration. C Muscle cells use fat stores from inside the cell to provide the energy needed. D Muscle tissues begin to use lactic acid as a source of energy. Unit 2 continued Biochemistry Page 26 22 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 20. The figure below illustrates the axon of a typical nerve cell. Sodium channel + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + Potassium ion, K+ Sodium ion, Na+ Axon (enlarged) Potassium channel – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – ++ + + + + + + ++ + + + + + ++ + + + + + + – + – – – –– + – – – – – – – –– – – –– + – – – – – – – When a nerve cell receives a stimulus, the cell membrane changes. The sodium (Na) channels open and positively charged Na ions flow into the cell, making that part of the cell membrane less negative on the inside. How does this action potential change over time? A A chain reaction moves along the membrane, causing its length to also become more nega- tive on the inside. B A chain reaction moves along the membrane, causing similar relatively positive charges on the outside of the membrane. C The relative charge stays in place until the nerve has carried all messages and the body goes to sleep. D A chain reaction moves along the membrane, causing similar relatively negative charges on the outside of the membrane. 21. A florist places a bouquet of white carnations in water containing blue dye. After a time, the flowers turn blue. What process helped the carnations to change color? A water’s ability to form crystals B formation of covalent bonds between hydrogen and oxygen molecules C ability of H 2 O to dissolve NaCl D cohesion and adhesion of water molecules Unit 2 continued Biochemistry Page 27 Name Date 23 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 22. Living things use enzymes in the chemical reactions of metabolism. When food is digested, it is metabolized to release energy. This process is illustrated below. THE METABOLIC PROCESS FOOD breakdown into small molecules GLYCOLYSIS AEROBIC ANAEROBIC RESPIRATION RESPIRATION Which statement best describes the role of an enzyme in this process? A The active site of the enzyme binds to a substrate on a food molecule and the enzyme changes shape slightly, causing a chemical reaction to happen. B Because enzymes are proteins, they only react with other protein molecules, resulting in the production of glucose. C The active site of the enzyme attached to the substrate of a food molecule produces carbon molecules, the building blocks of cells. D The active site of an enzyme attached to a substrate prevents the chemical reactions involved in metabolism from happening too quickly. 23. Most adult amphibians live in water or in moist habitats. What characteristic of amphibians makes a wet habitat necessary for their survival? A Amphibians are ectotherms. B Amphibians eat small invertebrates. C Adult amphibians can breathe through gills, lungs, or skin. D Amphibians eggs could easily dry out on land. Unit 2 continued Biochemistry Page 28 24 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 1. Genetically modified (GM) crops have become important in agriculture. GM crops have genes from other organisms that give the crops such traits as resistance to pests and weed-killing chemicals. One example of a GM crop is called Bt corn. The Bt corn is genetically engineered to contain a gene from a bacterium that produces a toxin. The toxin can kill the European corn borer, a pest that causes major damage to corn crops. Based on the information above, which of the following represents a potential concern associated with using Bt corn? A The Bt corn will be more susceptible to damage from the corn borer. B The Bt corn will require more irrigation, which will cost farmers more money. C The Bt corn may kill other insects that eat the corn, affecting the ecosystem in the area. D The Bt corn will grow much more quickly than other corn crops, outcompeting native plants. 2. The diagram below illustrates the concept of gene flow. #ROP #ROP 'ENE What type of problem might be caused by gene flow from a crop plant engineered to be resis- tant to herbicides? A Drug-resistant bacteria may evolve. B Genetically engineered plants may cause the evolution of weeds that are immune to weed- killing chemicals. C New species of poisonous insects may evolve. D Genetically engineered plants could not cause any type of environmental problem. 3. A volcanic island experienced an eruption that doubled its size. Which of the following would you expect to observe on the new land within a few months of the eruption? A the presence of pioneer species B the lack of pioneer species C an increased growth of trees and large plants D the presence of rich organic soil Unit 3 Ecology Page 29 Name Date 25 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 4. When a nonnative bird species appears in an ecosystem, which of the following will not be a likely change in the ecosystem? A Birds that share the same niche as the new species will have more competition for food resources. B Bird predator species will temporarily have more available prey. C Native bird species will immediately migrate to another area. D Each food chain in the ecosystem will adjust over time to include the new species of bird. 5. Look at the diagram below. FOOD WEB Algae and phytoplankton Shrew Coyote Mouse Grasshopper Plants Hawk Duck Heron Fish Crab Brine shrimp Which of the following is the correct flow of energy? A The crab gets energy from eating plants. B The heron gets energy from eating plants. C The crab gets energy from eating the heron. D The heron gets energy from eating the crab. 6. Which of the following is an example of how a change in climate can affect the equilibrium of an ecosystem? A When the climate change involves a decrease in temperature, more tropical plants can invade an ecosystem. B The species diversity of the insects in an ecosystem will remain constant as the tempera- ture increases. C A change in temperature will likely affect the ability of native species to withstand infec- tious diseases. D With increasing storms, additional energy is available for photosynthesis. Unit 3 continued Ecology Page 30 26 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 7. Mold and mushrooms are organisms that help recycle materials within an ecosystem. Mycelium Cap Stalk Gills Septa Nucleus How would an ecosystem with few recycling organisms be affected? A It would be able to support more life. B It would have more materials and resources available. C It would have fewer materials available to organisms. D It would contain more plants. 8. By drilling sediment cores from the ocean floor and studying them, scientists have learned much about ancient carbon dioxide levels and climate. A study in 2004 found that the waters around the North Pole 55 million years ago were as warm as the waters in today’s tropics. The researchers also found that the concentration of carbon dioxide 55 million years ago was 2,000 parts per million (ppm), whereas today, the concentration is 380 ppm. Which hypoth- esis does this finding support? A High levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide result in global warming. B Earth’s climate does not change. C Many erupting volcanoes gave off huge quantities of carbon dioxide 55 million years ago. D Today’s levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide are not a cause for concern. Unit 3 continued Ecology Page 31 Name Date 27 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 9. Examine the energy pyramid shown below. Each level of the energy pyramid above contains about 90% less energy than the level below it. The energy that is not passed on to the organism above it is used in the life processes of the organism or released into the environment. A certain sample of plants contains 490 joules (J) of energy. Based on the energy pyramid above, approximately how much of that energy remains in the level containing rats? A 4.90 J B 49.0 J C 490 J D 4,900 J 10. Three species of finches are in competition for the limited resources of an ecosystem. One spe- cies prefers fruit to seeds. The second species prefers seeds to fruit. The third species will eat fruit or seeds with equal preference. If the third species is removed from the area, how will the ecosystem change? A Resources will be more abundant. B The climate of the ecosystem will change. C Fruit and seed resources will become less abundant. D Water will become more available. Unit 3 continued Ecology Page 32 28 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 11. Examine the graph below. English Sparrow Population Number of English Sparrows per Square Kilometer 50 40 30 20 10 1972 1976 1980 1984 Year 1988 1992 1996 2000 In 1988, a large shopping mall was built in the area where the sparrows lived. According to the information in the graph, how did this affect the sparrow population over a period of time? A The sparrow population increased because humans fed the sparrows. B The sparrow population was unaffected by the shopping mall. C The sparrow population increased because predators were taken away. D The sparrow population decreased because of habitat destruction. 12. Noxious weeds are weeds that invade ecosystems and grow very quickly and aggressively. Infer how noxious weeds might affect the biodiversity of an ecosystem. A They increase the biodiversity, because they increase the total energy of the producers. B The biodiversity increases slightly, because they represent another species in the area. C The biodiversity usually decreases greatly as the noxious weeds outcompete the local plants. D The biodiversity is not affected at all, because the noxious weeds simply replace the domi- nant plant in the ecosystem. 13. Which of the following is a nonenvironmental factor that might cause a population to increase in size? A emergence of disease resistance B increased availability of a food source C decreased predation D increased competition Unit 3 continued Ecology Page 33 Name Date 29 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 14. Look at the energy pyramid below. EAGLE SQUIRRELS VEGETATION Which of the following is the correct flow of energy? A The vegetation gets energy from the squirrels. B The eagle gets energy from eating plants. C The squirrels get energy from eating the eagle. D The eagle gets energy from eating the squirrels. 15. Mistletoe grows on trees. It sends its roots into the tree and uses the nutrients that could otherwise be used by the tree. If mistletoe benefits from the relationship and the tree is harmed, what kind of relationship exists between the two organisms? A commensalism B mutualism C parasitism D predation 16. Which human activities are thought to be responsible for creating an ozone hole in the upper atmosphere? A burning sulfur-rich coal and increasing levels of greenhouse gases B increasing human population and clearing forests C producing and releasing chemicals called chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) D burning fossil fuels and the related increase in atmospheric CO 2 17. Which of the following environmental effects CANNOT be attributed to acid rain? A damage to trees and a decline of forest communities B an increase in CO 2 in Earth’s atmosphere C damage to historic buildings and monuments D death of aquatic organisms in lakes and streams Unit 3 continued Ecology Page 34 30 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 18. Over time, selection pressure from predators will cause prey species to evolve A into parasites. B into a new niche. C secondary compounds. D ways to avoid predation. 19. Examine the drawing below. In which of the following biomes are you MOST LIKELY to find this species? A tundra B savannah C temperate rain forest D boreal forest 20. Which of the following circumstances will allow a population to grow? A Emigration is greater than immigration. B The birth rate is equal to the death rate. C The death rate is higher than the birth rate. D The birth rate is greater than the death rate. 21. After fires destroyed 793,000 acres of aspen and pine forest in Yellowstone National Park in the unusually dry summer of 1988, biologists were able to study the long-term effects of fire on an ecosystem. The biologists found that the soil after the fire was more fertile and soon gave rise to small plants and new pine trees. What ecological process were the biologists observing? A biodiversity B equilibrium C succession D food web energy flow Unit 3 continued Ecology Page 35 Name Date 31 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 22. The graph below shows the average monthly values of atmospheric carbon dioxide. #ARBON PARTS -ONTH !TMOSPHERIC March May July Sept. Jan. Nov. 344 346 348 350 352 354 356 358 How can the dip in carbon dioxide levels shown on the graph be related to the carbon cycle? A Increased plant growth and photosynthesis during summer months remove more carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. B Erosion of farmland removes carbon dioxide from the air. C More carbon dioxide is dissolved in lake and ocean waters during the warm summer months. D Fewer trees are cut for firewood during warmer months. 23. A carbon sink is a part of Earth’s ecosystem that stores carbon in one form or another for hun- dreds, thousands, and even millions of years. Forests and oceans are known to be carbon sinks. Which of the following marine organisms play a major role in making the ocean a carbon sink? A whales, because they are large and can take up large amounts of carbon B gelatinous zooplankton, because their biomass consists largely of water C marine mammals, because they are high up on the food chain D phytoplankton, because they are extremely numerous and they use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis 24. Termites use the cellulose in wood as the main energy source in their diet. However, termites do not produce the enzymes necessary to break down the sugars in cellulose. Bacteria living in the digestive system of termites break down cellulose for the termites. Both the termites and the bacteria benefit from this relationship. This is an example of what type of relationship? A commensalism C parasitism B mutualism D predation Unit 3 continued Ecology Page 36 32 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 25. Infer why certain types of fungi in a landfill might be helpful to the environment. A Fungi reduce unpleasant odors. B Fungi give off less methane gas than other decomposers. C Some fungi can break down tough plastics. D Fungi remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. 26. What characteristic of the earthworm’s body represents a major evolutionary advancement? A the ability to regenerate lost parts B an internal body cavity that enables the animal to eat and digest food C segmentation, which allows for greater flexibility of movement and underlies the body organization of all animals that evolved later D cephalization, which led to the development of nervous systems 27. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of an exoskeleton for an insect? A An exoskeleton supports an insect’s body. B An exoskeleton protects organs and other structures inside the insect’s body. C An exoskeleton allows an insect to bend parts of its body that do not have joints. D An exoskeleton holds moisture inside so that the insect can live on land without drying out. 28. What is one advantage of a compound eye? A Compound eyes are very good at detecting light. B Compound eyes are very good at distinguishing colors. C Compound eyes are very good at detecting movement. D Compound eyes have extra lenses to replace damaged ones. Unit 3 continued Ecology Page 37 Name Date 33 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 29. The exoskeletons of arthropods provide a wonderful adaptation to life on land, and arthro- pods show a wide range of specialization in food sources and in habitat. What do these two observations explain? A the aquatic nature of many arthropod species B the enormous evolutionary success of arthropods C the small number of arthropod species D the small size of many arthropod species 30. Kali’s science lab has a saltwater aquarium with different kinds of invertebrates and fish in it. She has been investigating the structures that each creature uses for moving from place to place. Which of the following structures would Kali NOT observe being used for moving from place to place? A a sea star’s tube feet B a crab’s jointed legs C a lobster’s mandibles D a crayfish’s swimmerets 31. What is the specialized structure that allows most fish to control their vertical position in water? A gill B swim bladder C cartilagenous fin D lateral line 32. What characteristic of amphibians makes a wet habitat necessary for their survival? A Amphibians are ectotherms. B Amphibians eat small invertebrates. C Adult amphibians can breathe through their gills, their lungs, or their skin. D Amphibians have thin skin that absorbs or loses water depending on their surroundings. Unit 3 continued Ecology Page 38 34 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 33. The teeth shown in the drawings below are special teeth found in carnivores. MAMMALIAN TEETH Look at the drawing of the molar. Carnivores use this type of molar for slicing meat, and this type of molar is not very good for grinding or crushing. Herbivores, however, use their molars to grind plant material. How might herbivore molars differ from carnivore molars? A They would be larger and flatter. B They would be larger and sharper. C They would be smaller and flatter. D They would be smaller and sharper. Unit 3 continued Ecology Page 39 Name Date 35 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 34. A group of scientists studied the effects of pesticides on a local ecosystem. Over a number of years, they estimated the size of the populations of insect pests and beneficial species of insects in one area. Their findings from the first years of their study are illustrated below. 0OPULATION S 4IME YEARS #HANGES )NSECT "ENEFICIAL 0ESTICIDE APPLICATION Which statement BEST describes the relationship between the two populations of insects before the introduction of pesticides? A. As the population of the beneficial insects increased, so did the population of the pests. B. As the population of the beneficial insects decreased, so did the population of the pests. C. As the population of the beneficial insects increased, the population of the pests decreased. D. The populations do not appear to have had an effect on each other. 35. The Gila monster, a poisonous lizard, spends most of its life under rocks or burrowed in the ground. Which hypothesis MOST LIKELY explains the Gila monster’s behavior? A. The Gila monster has very few defenses and must hide from predators. B. The Gila monster feeds exclusively on small insects that live in the ground or under rocks. C. The Gila monster must hide underground or under rocks to ambush passing prey. D. The Gila monster can only control its body temperature during hot desert days by seeking cooler places. Unit 3 continued Ecology Page 40 36 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 36. Examine the physical characteristics of the birds shown below. Which of the birds is LEAST LIKELY to survive by eating plants or animals that live in shallow water? A B C D A mallard duck B common snipe C red-tailed hawk D great blue heron 37. The type of teeth a mammal has tells a great deal about the kind of food it eats. A wolf is a carnivore with sharp incisors and long canine teeth. It catches and eats other animals. A squir- rel is a herbivore with chisel-shaped incisors. Use this information to determine which skull above is MOST like a squirrel skull and what foods a squirrel is MOST LIKELY to eat. 3KULL 3KULL A. Squirrels have a skull like skull A and eat carcasses. B. Squirrels have a skull like skull B and chew nuts and seeds. C. Squirrels have a skull like skull A and must break open tough seeds and nuts. D. Squirrels have a skull like skull B and chew grass. Unit 3 continued Ecology Page 41 Name Date 37 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 1. The combined observations of Matthias Schleiden, Theodor Schwann, and Rudolf Virchin resulted in the formation of the cell theory. Which of the following is NOT part of this theory? A All cells come from existing cells. B The cell is the basic unit of all living things. C All organisms are made up of one or more cells. D All cells contain a nucleus. 2. Susan finds some old celery in the refrigerator. When she picks it up, she finds that it is limp and bendable. She places the celery in a bowl of water for an hour. When she returns, she finds that the celery stalk is rigid. Which organelle in the cells of the celery is responsible for this change? A cell membrane B nucleus C chloroplast D central vacuole 3. Which sentence BEST explains how the lack of a folded inner membrane in mitochondria would affect a cell? A The cell would not be able to reproduce because it could not make any ATP. B The cell would not be able to produce proteins because there would be no ribosomes. C The cell would have less energy because the vacuoles could no longer contract. D The cell would have less energy because the mitochondria could hold fewer ATP- producing enzymes. Unit 4 Structure and Function Page 42 38 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 4. A student conducted an experimental investigation of the gas production of a water plant. She placed a beaker upside down over a water plant submerged in water and collected the gas that the water plant produced when kept in sunlight. After six hours, the contents of the test tube were analyzed and a significant amount of oxygen was measured. Which of the following organelles was responsible for this change? A central vacuole B nucleus C chloroplast D cell wall 5. Which of the following would happen if the rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) in the cell of an organism lost all of its ribosomes? A Protein production in the organism would stop. B Storage of proteins within the cell would increase. C ATP production in the cell would stop. D Proteins would no longer be exported from the cell. 6. How are cells that form tissues different from cells that form colonies? A All cells can be organized to form tissues, but only independent unicellular prokaryotic cells can form colonies. B Independent cells of unicellular prokaryotes form tissues, but individual cells of multicel- lular eukaryotes can only form colonies. C Interdependent cells of multicellular eukaryotes form tissues, but individual cells of some unicellular organisms can only form colonies. D All cells can form either tissues or colonies, but only interdependent cells of multicellular eukaryotes form tissues. Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 43 Name Date 39 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 7. An oxygen molecule comes into contact with the outside of a cell’s lipid bilayer. What process would allow the molecule to move into the cell? A osmosis B simple diffusion C facilitated diffusion D active transport 8. The diagram below shows a cell with several structures identified. STRUCTURE OF A CELL Which structure is MOST like a town library, where information to help run the town is stored? A endoplasmic reticulum B mitochondrion C nucleus D ribosome 9. Infer why nerve cells, like telephones, must be able to send signals over long distances. A Signals that originate in the brain must deliver instructions to muscles and organs in all areas of the body. B Nerve cells have to transport hormones to gland cells distributed throughout the body. C Every nerve cell must send signal molecules that can attach to receptor proteins in all body organs. D Nerve cells must be able to pick up hormones from distant cells and transport them to the brain. Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 44 40 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 10. Cells communicate and coordinate activity by sending out signal molecules that carry infor- mation to other cells. Signal molecules are specific to a target cell inside the body. Receptor proteins on the target cells bind specific substances, such as signal molecules. Once bound by a signal molecule, the receptor protein changes its shape. This shape change relays informa- tion into the cytoplasm of the target cell. Why do signal molecules only bind with specific target cells? A Signal molecules are specific so that only tissues that perform certain functions are affected by the signal. B Signal molecules are specific so that only noncancerous tissues receive the signals that are sent. C Signal molecules only match the shape of their target cell in order to keep from confusing the body’s immune system. D Signal cells match many different target molecules, but only a few target cells will react to the signals that are sent. 11. Look at the diagram below. What process is shown here? A osmosis B meiosis C mitosis D fertilization Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 45 Name Date 41 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 12. Which of the following statements about mitosis is correct? A Two cells are produced, each containing half of the DNA of the original cell. B Five cells are produced, each containing a random assortment of genes from the original cell. C Three cells are produced: one cell receives the entire DNA of the original cell and the other two synthesize DNA from viruses. D Two cells are produced, each containing the complete original cell’s DNA. 13. Which of the following happens during cytokinesis in a eukaryotic cell? A The cytoplasm divides, separating roughly half the organelles into each of the two off- spring cells. B The nucleus divides to form two nuclei, each containing a complete set of the cell’s chromosomes. C Hollow protein structures called microtubules are organized in the cytoplasm. D A cell’s DNA is completely copied so that the cytoplasm contains twice as much DNA as it did initially. 14. The diagram below illustrates the stages of the cell cycle. During interphase, the cell is not dividing. For cells that divide often, such as skin cells, interphase can be very short. During the first gap phase (G1), a cell grows rapidly in size as the cell builds more organelles. For most cells, this phase occupies the major portion of the cell’s life. Cells that are not dividing, such as nerve cells, remain in the G1 phase. During the synthesis phase (S), a cell’s DNA is copied. At the end of the S phase, each chromosome consists of identical chromatids. During the second gap phase (G2), the cell continues to grow and forms special structures that help the cell divide. G1 (cell growth) G2 (growth and preparation for mitosis) Mitosis Cytokinesis S (DNA synthesis) Interphase Ce ll d iv is io n What is the main difference between the cell cycles of a nerve cell and a skin cell? A Interphase is much longer in a skin cell’s cycle. B Cytokinesis is much shorter in the cycle of a nerve cell. C Nerve cells do not undergo phases S, G2, mitosis, or cytokinesis. D Skin cells are much smaller and less differentiated than nerve cells. Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 46 42 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 15. Construction workers attach ropes and pulleys to wooden timbers on an old bridge. They use the rope and pulley system like the one in the diagram below to move the timbers away from each other, in order to dismantle the bridge. Which stage of mitosis is similar to the dismantling of the bridge? A prophase B metaphase C anaphase D telophase 16. What disease is caused by uncontrolled, abnormal cell division? A leprosy B cancer C heart disease D tuberculosis 17. Which of the following does NOT describe a function of the cell membrane? A Cell membranes maintain homeostasis by controlling the movement of substances into and out of the cell. B The cell membrane contains many different proteins that enable a cell to detect and respond to its surroundings. C The cell membrane participates in both active and passive transport. D The cell membrane aids in both mitosis and meiosis. Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 47 Name Date 43 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 18. The drawing below shows the process of mitosis in a eukaryotic cell. Diagram 2: Eukaryotic chromosomes 1 2 3 4 Which type of organism has cells that would undergo the process shown above? A bacterium B single-celled alga C virus D pine tree 19. A human skin cell has 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in a human gamete? A 2 B 23 C 44 D 46 20. If sex cells divided by mitosis instead of meiosis, predict the result of fertilization of an ovum by a sperm cell. A Fertilization would result in the formation of two identical cells. B Fertilization would cause crossing-over and recombination of genes. C Cells of the new individual would have double the necessary number of chromosomes. D The new individual would be identical to only one of the parents. Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 48 44 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 21. How does the haploid life cycle illustrated below differ from the life cycle experienced by humans? n n n 2n Fusion Mitosis n n Haploid cells Haploid individuals Zygote Gametes n n n Meiosis Diploid (2n) Haploid (n) Haploid Life Cycle A Most of the haploid life cycle is spent in the 2n state, but most of the human life cycle is spent in the n state. B Both meiosis and mitosis happen in the haploid life cycle, but only meiosis happens in the human life cycle. C The human life cycle has more steps and is much more complicated than the haploid life cycle. D In the haploid life cycle, meiosis gives rise to a new individual, but in the human life cycle, meiosis results in gametes. 22. Which of the following statements explains why a white blood cell and a nerve cell in a single individual have completely different shapes and functions? A The two cells have different sets of chromosomes. B The two cells have different patterns of gene expression. C The two cells use different genetic codes to translate the same genes. D The two cells were formed at different times in the individual’s life. Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 49 Name Date 45 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 23. A student made this sketch of a paramecium during a laboratory investigation. A paramecium is able to move on its own. Which of the following allows a paramecium to move? A contractile vacuole B micronucleus C flagella D cilia 24. Which of the following properties could be used to distinguish between an organism in the domain Bacteria and an organism in the domain Eukarya? A uses energy to carry out multiple functions B uses simple mechanical motion to move around C contains membrane-bound organelles D is composed of organic chemicals such as amino acids 25. Examine the illustration of the organism below. A What is the function of structure A? A translation B adherence C reproduction D locomotion Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 50 46 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 26. What is a plant’s response to changes in the length of days and nights called? A photoperiodism B tropism C phytochrome D vernalization 27. Various types of cactuses thrive in deserts even though there is little annual rainfall there. Which adaptation listed below allows cactuses to survive long periods without rain? A waxy cuticle on their surface B shallow roots that spread out over a large surface area C cessation of photosynthesis in summer D ability to take water from other desert plants 28. Which statement BEST summarizes the alternation of generations in plants? A one life cycle for male plants and a different life cycle for female plants B a life cycle in which haploid gametophytes alternate with diploid sporophytes C two life cycles during which either sexual or asexual reproduction takes place D a life cycle in which fertilization a lternates with mitosis Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 51 Name Date 47 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 29. In many algae, the zygote is the only diploid cell. It undergoes meiosis right after fertilization. In the ancestors of plants, however, meiosis was delayed. The zygote divided by mitosis and grew into a multi-celled sporophyte that was diploid and produced haploid spores by meiosis. The spores grew into multi-celled gametophytes that were haploid and produced gametes by mitosis. How did the ancestors of plants differ from algae? A The ancestors of plants spent more of their life cycle as haploid cells. B The ancestors of plants spent more of their life cycle as diploid cells. C Algae are photosynthetic, but the ancestors of plants were heterotrophic. D Algae must spend their life near water, while the ancestors of plants could thrive in dry conditions. 30. Which of the following advantages do seeds NOT provide to the offspring of plants? A nourishment of the embryo B dispersal of the plant C attraction of a pollinator D protection of the embryo 31. Which of the following is a survival advantage of a seed-producing plant over a non- seed-producing plant? A The seeds are rarely dispersed very far from the parent plant. B The hard seed coat protects the plant embryo until the seedling emerges. C Seed-producing plants have less genetic variation than non-seed-producing plants. D Thick roots provide the energy needed for the initial growth of plants that reproduce asexually. Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 52 48 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 32. The spines of a cactus are examples of modified A leaves. B stems. C roots. D shoots. 33. During hot, dry weather, which of the following do plants do to reduce water loss? A close stomata B increase the rate of photosynthesis C stop translocation D take in more water 34. Look at the diagram of the flower below. A B C F E D Which parts of the flower are male reproductive structures? A parts A and B B parts C and D C parts E and F D parts D, E, and F 35. A gardener wants to produce new plants that are genetically identical to the ones already growing. Which method of vegetative reproduction would the gardener NOT choose? A preparing leaf and stem cuttings B growing plants from seed C grafting D planting bulbs or corms Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 53 Name Date 49 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 36. What are plant growth regulators also known as? A tropisms B hormones C photoperiodism D auxin 37. What is a plant that completes its life cycle in a single growing season called? A annual B perennial C biennia D perpetual 38. A disease affecting elm trees is elm phloem necrosis, or elm yellows. This disease causes phloem sieve cells in the tree roots and trunk to harden and die. The disease is carried by an insect, the leafhopper. The leaves of diseased trees often turn yellow, curl up, and die. After about a year, the entire tree can die. How could a disease of the phloem harm an elm tree? A Water would back up in the trunk and leaves because the water could not flow back down through the phloem. B The diseased phloem would prevent translocation of organic compounds in the tree. C Organic compounds would leak out of the damaged phloem into the xylem. D The wrong organic compounds would be made in the phloem. 39. Plants have adaptations that increase their chance of survival. For example, when the leaves of a mimosa plant are touched, all of the leaves fold up. In response to what danger might mimosa plants have developed this adaptation? A dry weather B too much light C cold temperatures D leaf-eating animals Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 54 50 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 40. Brightly colored, sweet-smelling flowers are probably A insect pollinated. B bat pollinated. C wind pollinated. D self-pollinated. 41. In what kind of body system does a heart pump fluid containing oxygen and nutrients through a series of vessels into the body cavity, where the fluid washes across the body’s tis- sues, supplying them with oxygen and nutrients? A digestive system B open digestive system C open circulatory system D closed circulatory system 42. Which statement correctly describes a structure and its function? A The bodies of annelid worms have segments. B Earthworms break down plant and animal matter in soil and leave behind wastes called castings. C Earthworms have stiff bristles on the outside of their bodies that help them move. D Leeches produce an anticoagulant called hirudin in their saliva. 43. Which statement BEST compares the circulatory systems of a lake perch and a frog? A The perch has a single-loop circulatory system; the frog has a double-loop circulatory system. B Oxygen gets to the cells of a perch through its lungs; oxygen gets to the cells of a frog through its gills. C The perch sends blood directly to the heart from the gills; the frog sends blood through- out its body from the heart and lungs. D The perch has an open circulatory system; the frog has a closed circulatory system. Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 55 Name Date 51 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 44. Which of the following characteristics describes echinoderms? A protostome pattern of development B asymmetry C water vascular system D jointed appendages 45. Examine the physical characteristics of the birds shown below. Which of the birds is MOST LIKELY to survive by probing for plants or animals that live deep in the mud? A B C D A mallard duck B common snipe C red-tailed hawk D great blue heron 46. What is a difference between a voluntary and an involuntary muscle? A There are many types of voluntary muscles but only one type of involuntary muscle. B Involuntary muscles are stronger than voluntary muscles. C The thought processes of the individual control voluntary muscles. D Voluntary muscles use anaerobic respiration, but involuntary muscles do not. Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 56 52 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 47. Human blood contains different types of specialized cells (see Figure 1). Disclike red blood cells carry oxygen to the body’s tissues. Platelets help the blood clot when the body is injured. Large white blood cells are a part of the body’s immune system. Different types of white blood cells attack intruder cells and fight off infection. COMPONENTS OF HUMAN BLOOD Which of the following statements BEST compares the role of component A with the role of component C? A Component A carries oxygen, while component C causes clotting. B Both component A and component C contribute to inflammatory response. C Both component A and component C contribute to specific immune response. D Component A engulfs pathogens, while component C makes antibodies for specific pathogens. 48. The picture below shows the exchange of gases between two body systems. Alveolus Capillary wall BLOOD CO2 O2 In the diagram, which two body systems are exchanging gases? A circulatory and digestive C circulatory and respiratory B respiratory and endocrine D endocrine and digestive 49. Which statement BEST describes the interactions between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system in humans? A Both systems work independently of one another. B Both systems are controlled by the endocrine system. C The central nervous system controls the peripheral nervous system. D The peripheral nervous system controls the central nervous system. Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 57 Name Date 53 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 50. Which statement BEST compares the structure and function of axons and dendrites? A One axon extending from the cell body sends out nerve signals; several dendrites branch- ing from the cell body receive information sent by other axons. B Several axons extending from the cell body send out nerve signals; one dendrite receives information sent by other axons. C The cell body sends commands through long, thin axons and dendrites. D One axon extending from the cell body sends out signals to the central nervous system; several dendrites branching from the cell body send signals to the peripheral nervous system. 51. Where are adult stem cells found in the human body? A smooth muscle lining blood vessels B the nervous tissue of the brain C bone marrow used to produce new blood cells D connective tissue 52. What structure nourishes a human embryo and removes wastes through a network of blood vessels? A placenta B uterus C zygote D ovary 53. How can a few cells found at a crime scene be used to identify a criminal? A The DNA from the cells can be copied, and then a unique DNA profile can be made. B The DNA from the cells can be compared to known physical characteristics. C The DNA from the cells can identify the hair and eye color of the criminal. D The DNA can be used to reconstruct tissue, and then the tissue can be used to identify the criminal. Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 58 54 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 54. Examine the diagram below. Which part in the diagram above contains the cell’s nucleic acids? A Part A B Part B C Part C D Part D 55. Which human body system is responsible for supplying oxygen to mitochondria and getting rid of carbon dioxide and water? A circulatory system B respiratory system C urinary system D nervous system Unit 4 continued Structure and Function Page 59 Name Date 55 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 1. A scientist planted 800 seeds in containers of damp soil. Half the seeds were placed in direct sunlight. The other 400 seeds were kept in total darkness. All other conditions were the same for both groups of plants. After seven days, all 800 seeds sprouted and produced leaves. The 400 seeds that were kept in total darkness had white leaves. Of the plants grown in sunlight, green leaves developed on 296 of them and white leaves developed on 104 of them. All 800 plants were placed in sunlight for an additional two weeks. After 14 days in sunlight, the leaves of 305 of the 400 plants that had originally been kept in darkness turned green. The other 95 plants in this group remained white. Figure 1 Figure 2 Results After Seven Days 0 50 100 150 200 250 300 350 400 450 'ROUP 'ROUP Results After Fourteen Days 0 50 100 150 200 250 300 350 'ROUP 'ROUP What is the BEST explanation for the observations in the experiment described above? A Green leaf color is not an inherited characteristic in these plants. B The presence or absence of light does not affect the development of green leaf color. C The color of these plants depends on both the environmental conditions and the genetic makeup of the plant. D The white leaf color is a dominant trait, because some plants remained white even when placed in lighted conditions. 2. Which of the following statements about changes in DNA that result in a mutation is true? A Mutations in the DNA of body cells cannot affect the individual in which they happen. B A mutation in the DNA of a body cell can cause the cell to produce a protein that does not function. C A mutation in the DNA of a gamete affects the body cells of the individual that produced the gamete. D Mutations in the DNA of body cells can cause the offspring to produce a protein that does not function. Unit 5 Heredity Page 60 56 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 3. Genetic variability within organisms within a species increases the chance that a species will survive changing environmental conditions. What kind of reproduction produces the MOST genetic variability within a species? A asexual reproduction C parthenogenesis B budding D sexual reproduction 4. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes line up next to each other. In some cases, one arm of a chromatid crosses over the arm of another chromatid. What is the result of this process? A additional variation in the DNA of each sex cell formed B the independent assortment of genetic material C the creation of an additional sex cell D continuity in the offspring cell’s DNA 5. For the species depicted in the pedigree below, black fur color is dominant over brown fur color. Black fur Black fur Black fur Black fur Black fur Brown fur Black fur Which of the following must be true? A Both parents are homozygous for the black-fur trait. B Both parents are heterozygous for the black-fur trait. C The offspring that has brown fur must have a mutant gene for fur color. D One parent is homozygous for fur color and one parent is heterozygous for fur color. 6. Agricultural scientists develop a way to insert a third chromosome into the diploid body cells of a watermelon plant to create a seedless fruit. Infer how this extra chromosome could affect watermelon offspring. A With three chromosomes, the watermelon would produce three times as many offspring as a normal watermelon plant. B Because the chromosome was inserted into a diploid body cell, it would not be passed to offspring through meiosis. C The extra chromosome would be passed to offspring through meiosis, so each generation would produce seedless fruit. D More experiments are needed to determine how cells with three chromosomes reproduce and affect offspring. Unit 5 continued Heredity Page 61 Name Date 57 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 7. A lily has one allele for spotted pink petals and one allele for solid pink petals. The resulting flower has spotted pink petals. What is the phenotype of the lily? A The alleles for spotted and solid pink petals are the phenotype. B The trait of spotted pink petals is the phenotype. C The allele for spotted pink petals is the phenotype. D The allele for solid pink petals is the phenotype. 8. A gardener crossed a plant with red flowers with a plant that had white flowers. The offspring plants had pink flowers. What is the MOST LIKELY genetic reason for these differences in color? A polygenic inheritance B codominance C recessive pink genes D incomplete dominance 9. If the sequence of the nucleotides in a portion of one strand of DNA is CCTATGGCC, what is the order of the nucleotides in the complementary strand? A AAGCGTTAA B CCTATGGCC C GGATACCGG D TTCGCAATT 10. What evidence in pea plant crosses supported Mendel’s law of independent assortment? A When crossing true-breeding pea plants, all of the offspring exhibit traits that are exhib- ited in the parents. B When crossing hybrid pea plants, some of the offspring exhibit traits that are not exhib- ited in the parents. C When crossing pea plants that differ in two characteristics, traits produced by dominant factors always appear together. D When crossing pea plants that differ in two characteristics, traits produced by dominant factors do not necessarily appear together. Unit 5 continued Heredity Page 62 58 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 11. A genetic engineer wants to cut a DNA molecule into smaller pieces in order to isolate the insulin gene. What tool should the engineer use? A plasmids B restriction enzymes C cloning vectors D sticky ends 12. The following chart shows the number of 2n chromosomes in various organisms. Organism Number of 2n Chromosomes Mosquito 6 Corn 20 Human 46 Dog 78 Calculate the number of chromosomes in each gamete of a mosquito, corn, a human, and a dog. A 3, 10, 23, 39 B 6, 20, 46, 78 C 3, 15, 22, 46 D 6, 20, 23, 39 13. Inheriting two copies of a recessive allele causes an individual to die before reaching sexual maturity. How is it that this recessive allele can be passed on from one generation to the next? A Homozygous dominant individuals usually live past sexual maturity to pass on the domi- nant allele to their offspring. B Heterozygous individuals can pass on the recessive allele because they do not die from having only one copy of the allele. C Two homozygous dominant parents will not give the recessive allele to their offspring, so all will reach sexual maturity. D Two heterozygous parents who have reached sexual maturity will not give the recessive allele to their offspring, so all will reach sexual maturity. Unit 5 continued Heredity Page 63 Name Date 59 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 14. Which work did James Watson and Francis Crick NOT build on directly in order to work out the structure of the DNA molecule? A Frederick Griffith’s discovery that genetic material could be transferred from harmful bac- terial cells to formerly harmless bacteria B work by Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann that led to the formation of the cell theory C Oswald Avery’s discovery that DNA was the agent that transformed bacteria D the Hershey-Chase experiment with radioactively labeled viruses, which confirmed that DNA, not protein, was the transforming agent 15. Errors sometimes happen during DNA replication. If a DNA nucleotide that contains guanine is accidentally substituted for a DNA nucleotide that contains thymine, which of the follow- ing will always happen as a result of the error in DNA replication? A The cell will die when it divides. B The cell will become a rapidly dividing cancer cell. C The cell will have a better chance of surviving under different conditions. D The cell will produce mRNA with a mutated nucleotide sequence. 16. The diagram represents an incomplete model of the DNA molecule. T G C A G C C G A A T G C T C G T A A C A T G Which base should be used to make a complete base pair at the right end of the model? A guanine B cytosine C adenine D thymine Unit 5 continued Heredity Page 64 60 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 17. What would MOST LIKELY happen if tRNA malfunctioned during the assembly of a protein molecule? A Mutations would happen in the segment of mRNA as it formed. B Amino acids would no longer be transported into the cell. C The wrong amino acids would be added to the new protein molecule. D Bonds between the amino acids would no longer form inside the ribosome. 18. Which of the following identifies the process of forming a nucleic acid by using another mol- ecule as a template and identifies its MOST common form? A transcription—the synthesis of RNA using one strand of DNA B translation—the synthesis of RNA using one strand of DNA C protein synthesis—the synthesis of proteins using one strand of DNA D transference—the synthesis of proteins using one strand of RNA 19. Which statement BEST compares mutations in genes with chromosomal mutations? A Gene mutations always involve point mutations, and chromosomal mutations always hap- pen during crossing-over. B Gene mutations result from deletions and inversions, but chromosomal mutations result from duplication and translocation. C Gene mutations involve codons, while chromosomal mutations involve pieces of chromosomes. D Gene mutations happen during crossing-over, while chromosomal mutations happen dur- ing replication. Unit 5 continued Heredity Page 65 Name Date 61 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 20. The population of crabs living on a sandy beach exhibits three colors: dark brown, light brown, and speckled. The genotypes for these colors are BB for dark brown, bb for light brown, and Bb for speckled. The speckled color blends in extremely well with the color of the sand on the beach. The pattern appears to provide the speckled crabs with some protection from predatory birds. PHENOTYPES AND GENOTYPES OF CRABS Speckled (Bb) Dark Brown (BB) Light Brown (bb) Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this information? A Only the speckled crabs will survive, and all of their offspring will be speckled. B The allele for light brown color will be lost because of predatory birds eating light brown crabs. C The allele for dark brown color will be lost because of predatory birds eating dark brown crabs. D Both the allele for dark brown color and the allele for light brown color continue to be passed on in the crab population. 21. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a defect in the allele that codes for hemoglobin-the protein that enables red blood cells to carry oxygen. Sickle cell anemia results from which type of mutation? A a point mutation C a chromosomal mutation B a silent mutation D a gene rearrangement 22. The Human Genome Project found that less than 2% of human DNA codes for proteins. Which of the following makes up more than 98% of human DNA? A introns C operons B exons D transposons 23. Some people have trouble digesting milk products containing the chemical lactose, a condi- tion called lactose intolerance. Which factor leads to lactose intolerance? A defects in the lac operon gene regulation system in bacteria B overactive lac operon gene regulation in the human intestinal walls C a defect in transcription factors involving the lac genes D expression of noncoding interons in the lac operon Unit 5 continued Heredity Page 66 62 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 24. The chart below represents how anticodons pair with codons during protein synthesis. CODON AND ANTICODON PAIRING Transfer RNA UGA CUG CAG Messenger RNA ACU GAC GUC GAA A strand of messenger RNA is attached to a ribosome and is directing protein synthesis. The next exposed codon of this messenger RNA has the code GAA. It is most likely to bond with a transfer RNA that has which anticodon? A CTT B CUU C GAA D TUU 25. The drawing below shows a partial strand of DNA. Which of the following statements BEST describes the structure of DNA? A Two strands of proteins are held together by sugar molecules, nitrogen bases, and phos- phate groups. B Two strands composed of sugar molecules and phosphate groups are linked together by proteins. C Nitrogen bases and phosphate groups link together to form the backbone of a strand. Two such strands are linked together by sugar molecules. D Sugar molecules and phosphate groups link together to form the backbone of a strand. Two such strands are linked together by matched nitrogen bases. 26. Two structures are characteristic of all viruses: nucleic acid and a capsid. What is the function of the nucleic acid? A The nucleic acid contains the genetic information needed to bind with a host cell. B The nucleic acid gives the virus the shape needed to invade a host cell. C The nucleic acid contains the genetic information needed to reproduce itself. D The nucleic acid contains the genetic information needed to avoid detection. Unit 5 continued Heredity Page 67 Name Date 63 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 1. Evidence exists that during the thousands of years in which the Grand Canyon formed, the canyon divided a single population of squirrels into two populations. One of these squirrel populations now lives on the North Rim of the canyon, and the other population lives on the South Rim. Which of the following factors would make the evolution of the populations into separate species LESS likely? A Different predators live on the North and South rims of the canyon. B A few of the squirrels manage to cross the canyon and breed with squirrels on the other side. C Different trees grow on the North and South rims of the canyon because of changes in the water table. D A disease attacks one population of squirrels and kills most of them. The squirrels on the other side of the canyon are not affected. 2. Male birds of paradise have extremely long, showy tail feathers. Which of the following state- ments BEST describes a selective advantage for having this trait? A The bird is easier for predators to spot. B The bird must eat more to produce extra-large feathers. C The bird flies slowly because of drag created by the feathers. D The bird attracts more females and therefore mates more frequently. 3. Which of the following mutations would be MOST LIKELY to improve the chances that an organism will survive? A weaker leg muscles that make an animal slower B a stronger scent that makes an animal easier to find C a weaker scent that makes a flower less attractive to bees D stronger leg muscles that allow an animal to jump away from danger Unit 6 Evolution Page 68 64 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 4. The diagram below illustrates the concept of adaptive radiation. !NCESTRAL 3PECIES 3PECIES 3PECIES 3PECIES 3PECIES 3PECIES Which of the following circumstances may result in this pattern? A the movement of a large number of individuals between populations B if parents are particularly selective of their mates C if a species enters a new environment that has relatively few other species D if a species enters a new environment where there is an abundance of competition 5. The evolutionary model that suggests that evolution happens in sudden spurts due to drastic environmental changes, such as ice ages, is known as A catastrophism. B punctuated equilibrium. C gradualism. D species drift. 6. Darwin’s theory of natural selection was based partly on his observation that A DNA is the genetic material. B some organisms have more offspring than others do. C all eukaryotic cells have a nucleus. D garden pea plants can self-pollinate. Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 69 Name Date 65 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 7. Examine the pictures below. Notice the similarities among the structures. CatLs leg DolphinLs flipper BatLs wing #AT S $OLPHIN S "AT S These similarities provide evidence for which of the following hypotheses? A All mammals have evolved from an ancestor that was a bat. B Legs and wings may have evolved from flippers. C A cat’s leg, a dolphin’s flipper, and a bat’s wing have identical functions. D Cats, dolphins, and bats may have had the same ancestor millions of years ago. 8. Which of the following statements is NOT a prediction of the theory of evolution? A Closely related species will show similarities in nucleotide sequences. B If species have changed over time, their genes should have changed. C A land animal that spends most of its life in water will evolve lungs. D Closely related species will show similarities in amino acid sequences. 9. The Miller-Urey experiment showed that under certain conditions, organic compounds could form from inorganic molecules. What is one consequence of this experiment? A Scientists think it is possible that organic compounds formed from the inorganic com- pounds present on Earth billions of years ago. B The experiment used the exact inorganic compounds present on Earth billions of years ago and left no doubt about the mechanism of early life. C The experiment proved that methane and ammonia will always give rise to organic mol- ecules in any circumstances. D There were no immediate consequences of this experiment to evolutionary thought. Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 70 66 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 10. Modern scientists have observed that genetic changes happen over time in all natural popula- tions. Therefore, by comparing amino acid sequences, scientists can determine how similar one species is to another. The table below compares amino acids in a number of species. Some scientists have tried to use a “molecular clock,” which provides information on how long ago species diverged by assigning a time period that it takes for a change to happen in a molecule. By multiplying the number of molecular changes by the time period, one can estimate how long ago two species diverged. Hemoglobin Comparison Animal with hemoglobin Amino acids that differ from human hemoglobin Gorilla 1 Rhesus monkey 8 Mouse 27 Chicken 45 Frog 67 Based on the information in the table, which animal is MOST CLOSELY related to humans? A rhesus monkey B gorilla C chicken D lamprey 11. What is the major source of new alleles in natural populations? A mutations in somatic cells B mutations in sex cells C adaptations in individual organisms D trait selection by natural selection Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 71 Name Date 67 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 12. At first, a mutation may make no difference to an individual. Even if the mutation results in a nonfunctional protein, the body’s cell may have a functional copy of the gene as its second allele. However, this new nonfunctioning version could be passed on as a recessive allele. This kind of mutation is the probable origin of many recessive disorders. Only characteristics that are expressed can be targets of natural selection. Therefore, natural selection CANNOT oper- ate against recessive alleles, even if they are unfavorable. What does this explain? A why natural selection can only act against heterozygous carriers of a recessive disorder B why genetic disorders can persist in a population C why advantageous offspring are more likely to survive and reproduce D why recessive alleles are never expressed 13. Carl Linnaeus was an 18th century biologist who set out to catalog all known species. To this end, he devised a system that assigned a unique two-name scientific name to each known species. His naming system, called binomial nomenclature, has been universally accepted. In trying to catalog every known species, Linnaeus devised more than a naming system. He also devised a system to classify all plants and animals known in his time. In the Linnean system of classification, organisms are grouped in successive levels of hierarchy based on similarities in their form and structure. There are eight basic levels in the modern Linnean system, although many new groups and some new levels have been added. 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 Levels Which level of organization has the MOST individual species in it? A Level 1 B Level 3 C Level 7 D Level 8 Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 72 68 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 14. Which of the following is the fundamental unit of biological classification? A an individual B a population C a species D a phylum 15. Some large snakes, such as pythons, have small internal leg bones. These bones are examples of what? A extinction B fossil organs C polyploidy D vestigial structures 16. Which of the following BEST summarizes the scientific theory of evolution? A an explanation of the origin of all species on Earth, along with fossil and genetic evidence, that has been scientifically tested and supported B a guess about why there are so many different kinds of organisms living on Earth today C an idea that scientists cannot come to an agreement about and argue about among themselves D a logical explanation of the origin of all species on Earth that cannot be proved because there are still missing links in the fossil record 17. The drawings below illustrate a fungus, a plant, and an animal. Which of the following is true of fungi, plants, and animals? A They are organisms that live only on land. B They are organisms that form mycorrhizae. C They are three successful kingdoms that evolved from protists. D They are three successful kingdoms that evolved from archaebacteria. Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 73 Name Date 69 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 18. During the Industrial Revolution, scientists in England noted that moths were changing in color from light gray to dark gray as the trees on which they rested became soot covered. Which of Darwin’s key observations does this transformation support? A Organisms tend to produce more offspring than can survive; thus, all populations must be limited by their environment. B Individuals that carry advantageous traits will increase in a population over time. C Species are modified over time as different populations specialize in different types of food. D Inheritance plays a role in evolution. 19. How does the study of extinct species help scientists understand current life forms? A The species that exist at any time are the net result of speciation and all past extinctions. B The species that exist at any time are the result of speciation caused by past extinctions. C Past extinctions show scientists the traits that were selected against and that no longer exist in present life forms. D Past extinctions show scientists the ancient ancestors of modern life forms. 20. Which of the following do biologists NOT use to classify organisms? A homologous structures B derived characteristics C appearance D analogous structures Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 74 70 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 21. A new animal was discovered in a remote area of Southeast Asia. The animal seems to resem- ble a crocodile. Biologists want to classify the mystery animal and determine its evolutionary history. The first step in this process is to analyze the characteristics in Figure 1. The second step is to use that information to create a cladogram (Figure 2). Figure 1 Animal Characteristics Backbone Lungs Mammary glands Bipedal Fish Yes No No No Deer Yes Yes Yes No Human Yes Yes Yes Yes Mystery animal Yes Yes No No Figure 2 Fish Deer Human Where would a biologist place the mystery animal on the cladogram? A between the deer and the human B before the fish C between the fish and the deer D The mystery animal cannot be placed on this cladogram. 22. In the current system of classification of organisms, kingdoms are identified by five charac- teristics: cell type, the presence of cell walls, body type, genetics, and nutrition. Which of the following incorrectly associates a currently recognized kingdom with the form(s) of nutrition used by the members of that kingdom? A Eubacteria: autotroph or heterotroph B Archaebacteria: autotroph or heterotroph C Fungi: autotroph D Animalia: heterotroph Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 75 Name Date 71 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 23. A taxonomist discovers a new animal in a remote valley in Papua New Guinea. Using genetic testing, he is able to classify the animal. Which of the following would result from this classification? A a new species name for the animal B the complete genetic code for the animal C a characterization of the animal’s ecological niche D an understanding of the animal’s mating and foraging behaviors 24. Which of the following were MOST LIKELY the first multicellular organisms to invade land? A arthropods and primitive algae C mosses B plants and fungi living symbiotically D amphibians and flowering plants 25. While cutting through the side of a mountain to build a highway, workers expose several lay- ers of rock, as shown in the sketch below. Fossils of whale bones, shark teeth, and sand dollars are found in the rocks that form Layer 4. Fossils of rodents, toads, and lizards are found in Layer 2. ROCK LAYERS Layer 1 Layer 2 Layer 3 Layer 4 Layer 5 The observations above support which of the conclusions below? A When Layer 4 formed, the mountain was near a large lake. B When Layer 4 formed, whales, sharks, and sand dollars lived in the mountains. C When Layer 4 formed, the area where the fossils were found was covered by an ocean. D When Layer 4 formed, whales, sharks, lizards, toads, and rodents were in the same food web. 26. Which of the following evidence supports the theory of endosymbiosis? A Many different species of animals have embryos with similar structures at similar stages of development. B The replication of DNA found in mitochondria and chloroplasts takes place indepen- dently of the cell cycle. C Two different groups of prokaryotes appear to have evolved. D Lipids form tiny droplets that resemble cell membranes. Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 76 72 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 27. The organisms from a particular kingdom are eukaryotes; they have a cell wall made from chi- tin, they can be either unicellular or multicellular, and they are heterotrophic. An example of an organism from this kingdom is Penicillin notatum. Which kingdom is being described? A Eubacteria B Plantae C Fungi D Protista 28. According to endosymbiotic theory, which kingdom represents organisms that may have given rise to mitochondria and chloroplasts? A Archaebacteria B Eubacteria C Fungi D Protists 29. In the 1520s, the Spanish explorer Cortés and his armies carried the virus that causes small- pox to North America and South America. The death rate from smallpox in Europe at that time was approximately 10%. However, the death rate among the American Indians who were exposed to smallpox averaged 70%. Which of the following statements BEST explains the dif- ference in death rates? A People in Europe were healthier than American Indians. B Antibiotics were available in Europe but not in North America. C American Indians had never been exposed to the smallpox virus, so resistant individuals had not yet become common. D The American Indians were exposed to a virus that was different from the virus for small- pox in Europe. 30. How are viruses different from living organisms? A Viruses have no DNA or RNA. B Viruses require host cell parts to reproduce. C Viruses contain no proteins. D Viruses can be killed by antibiotics. Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 77 Name Date 73 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 31. Diseases that can spread from person to person are known as communicable diseases. Many different types of organisms, including viruses, can cause communicable diseases. Which of the following communicable diseases is caused by a virus and can be transmitted from an infected mother to her baby during childbirth? A herpes B malaria C ringworm D tetanus 32. Which of the following is true of fungi? A They are never poisonous, and therefore all mushrooms can be eaten. B They do not impact the world around them because they are so small. C They are unsuitable for use as an alternative to gasoline. D They can grow within human tissue to cause infections. 33. Explain how the body structure of a fungus makes athlete’s foot, ringworm, and other fungal infections difficult to cure. A Fungi have threadlike hyphae that grow into and absorb nutrients from human tissues. B Fungi have sexual organs that enable them to reproduce more rapidly than they can be killed by drugs. C Fungi have bodies that can slowly move across surfaces to escape from drug applications. D Bacteria enclose fungi in a protective layer, making treatments with drugs less effective. 34. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the hypothesized progression of algae to modern plants? A green algae—nonvascular plants—gymnosperms—vascular plants B green algae—gymnosperms—vascular plants—nonvascular plants C green algae—gymnosperms—vascular plants—nonvascular plants—angiosperms D green algae—nonvascular plants—vascular plants—gymnosperms—angiosperms Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 78 74 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 35. Below is part of a field guide that several students have been using to identify trees in a local park. The students notice that one plant has thin 1.2 cm needles that occur in clusters. 1. a. Leaves are thin and needlelike (coniferous) . . . . . . . Go to 2 b. Leaves are broad and fanlike (deciduous) . . . . . . . . Go to 6 2. a. Needles are over 2.5 cm long and are clustered . . . . Go to 3 b. Needles are 1.25 cm long or less . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Go to 4 3. a. Needles occur in clusters of 3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Pitch pine b. Needles occur in clusters of 5 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Eastern white pine (Pinus rigida) (Pinus strobus) Which of the following inferences can be made? A The plant is deciduous. B The plant is a Pinus rigida. C The plant is an eastern white pine. D The plant cannot be identified from the information provided. 36. Which characteristic separates mammals from all other animals? A Mammals produce milk. B Mammals are endotherms. C Mammals give birth on land. D Mammals have four-chambered hearts. Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 79 Name Date 75 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 37. The picture below shows a sponge. Early biologists thought that sponges were plants. What evidence supported this classification? A Sponges have specialized cells. B Sponges prey on small animals. C Sponges carry out photosynthesis. D Sponges move very slowly, if they move at all. 38. Today, biologists classify sponges as animals rather than plants. What evidence supports today’s classification? A Sponges have asymmetry. B Sponges do not have a backbone. C Sponges cannot make their own food. D Sponges do not have tissues or organs. Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 80 76 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 39. In a classroom experiment, students conducted a survey to determine the similarities and dif- ferences among groups of invertebrates. They recorded their observations in Figure 1. They also made a chart of phyla in the animal kingdom showing evolutionary milestones (Figure 2). They wanted to know where each invertebrate specimen they examined would fit on a phylo- genetic tree. Figure 1 Figure 2 !NIMAL 0HYLUM 3YMMETRY )NTERNAL PLAN /THER OBSERVATIONS Sponge Porifera Asymmetrical Full Hydra Cnidaria Radial Tissues Stinging Planarian Platyhelminthes Bilateral Acoelomate Gut opening Roundworm Nematoda Bilateral Pseudocoelomate Threadlike Earthworm Annelida Bilateral Coelomate Segmented Snail Mollusca Bilateral Coelomate Muscular Beetle Arthropoda Bilateral Coelomate Paired Star Echinodermata Bilateral Coelomate Five tube Phylum Evolutionary Chordata Notocord Echinodermata Deuterosomes Arthropoda Jointed Annelida Segmentation Mollusca Coelom Nematoda Pseudocoelom Platyhelminthes Bilateral Cnidaria Tissues Porifera Multicellularity Which four of the animals studied are most alike in terms of shared evolutionary characteristics? A The earthworm, snail, beetle, and starfish are most alike, because they all have bilateral symmetry and a coelom. B The sponge, hydra, snail, and starfish are most alike, because they all can live in water. C The hydra, planarian, roundworm, and earthworm are most alike, because none of them has legs. D All of the animals studied are very different from one another. 40. Gastropods, cephalopods, and bivalves share the same basic organ structures and tissue layers. This is because they are all members of the same A kingdom. B phylum. C genus. D species. Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 81 Name Date 77 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 41. A high school student did a field investigation of Phylum Mollusca, Class Pelecypoda, at an ocean beach. The student collected and counted the animals, identified them to genus using a field guide, and noted where each had been found. The table illustrates the results. Marine Forms of Class Pelecypoda of Phylum Mollusca on an Ocean Beach Sand or Mud Wood Rock Open Water Mya (33) Mytilus (50) Pholas (19) Pecten (102) Tagelus (20) Teredo (23) Ostrea (10) Ensis (10) Yoldia (11) Nucula (11) Venus (14) What could the student reasonably infer from the census of mollusks on the beach? A Fewer Ensis may live on that beach than any other mollusk in the class Pelecypoda, but further study is required. B More species of Pelecypoda were found in the sand or mud than any other environment studied. C Protective measures should be taken to ensure that Ostrea does not become endangered. D Pholas and Ostrea that live in rocky environments compete for resources. 42. Which of the following BEST describes why animals usually behave in ways that are favorable for them? A because natural selection favors traits that benefit the environment B because natural selection favors traits that benefit the individual C because natural selection favors traits that benefit behavior D because natural selection favors traits that are innate Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 82 78 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 43. A group of scientists studied the effects of pesticides on a local ecosystem. Over a number of years, they estimated the size of the populations of insect pests and beneficial species of insects in one area. Their findings from the first years of their study are illustrated below. 0OPULATION S 4IME YEARS #HANGES )NSECT "ENEFICIAL 0ESTICIDE APPLICATION Which statement BEST describes the relationship between the two populations of insects after the introduction of pesticides? A As the population of the beneficial insects increased, so did the population of the pests. B As the population of the beneficial insects decreased, so did the population of the pests. C As the population of the beneficial insects increased, the population of the pests decreased. D The populations do not appear to have had an effect on each other. 44. What major evolutionary characteristic is shared by sponges, chordates, jelly- fish, and echinoderms? A body cavity B notochord C multicellularity D segmentation Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 83 Name Date 79 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 45. In the bony fishes, growth results in a series of fine concentric ridges that end obliquely on the scale margin. After cessation of growth during winter, the first ridges of the next growth season form parallel to the scale margin, making a definite winter line. This makes age deter- mination possible in salmon, trout, bass, and others. A wildlife biologist studied the growth rings on preserved scales of rainbow trout taken from an inland lake over a ten-year period and drew this graph. THROUGH ! VERA G E UMBER GRO WTH What can you infer from the graph about the trout in this lake from 1980 to 1990? A The number of winter rings remained steady throughout that period. B The trout population increased steadily during that period. C The population of older trout decreased rapidly in the late 1980s. D The number of winter rings decreased steadily throughout that period. 46. Birds and reptiles share many characteristics. Which statement accurately describes some of the differences between birds and reptiles? A Birds have feathers and wings; reptiles have dry, scaly skin. B Birds have hollow bones and toothless beaks; reptiles have large teeth and solid bones. C Bird eggs have a leathery shell; reptile eggs have a hard shell. D Birds live in all types of ecosystems; reptiles only live in deserts. Unit 6 continued Evolution Page 84 80 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 1. Which of the following is NOT a testable hypothesis? A Nonliving things do not grow and develop. B Lipids do not mix with water. C Plant cells contain DNA. D Dogs are better than cats. 2. Based on the information in the table below, which of the following is NOT a valid conclu- sion about carbon dioxide emissions? U.S. Carbon Dioxide Emissions* from Fossil Fuel Energy Consumption Energy Sector 1997 1998 1999 Residential 289 289 290 Commercial 241 244 244 Industrial 490 480 481 Transportation 474 482 496 Total 1493 1495 1511 *Emissions are given in millions of metric tons of carbon. A Carbon dioxide emissions increased each year from 1997 to 1999. B The commercial energy sector is the smallest source of emissions. C Total carbon dioxide emissions have always exceeded 1500 million metric tons of carbon. D The transportation and industrial energy sectors are the largest 3. In a controlled experiment, A a control group is compared with one or more experimental groups. B there are at least two variables. C all factors should be different. D a variable is not needed. Biology Practice Test 1 Page 85 Name Date 81 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Biology Practice Test 1 continued 4. A scientist conducted an experiment to see how exposing turtle eggs to different conditions affects whether they produce male or female turtles. She organizes her results in the table below. Light exposure Temperature Resulting turtles sunlight 25.0ºC 100% males shade 28.5ºC 50% males and 50% females complete darkness 30.0ºC 100% females Based on the data in the table, which of the following statements is true? A A valid conclusion can’t be drawn because none of the variables changed. B A valid conclusion can’t be drawn because too many of the variables changed. C A valid conclusion is that as temperature increases, number of males born increases. D A valid conclusion is that as temperature increases, number of females born increases. 5. This graph shows the volume of water flowing in the Yakima River during a 12-month period Which conclusion would be supported by the data? 10,000 9000 8000 7000 6000 5000 4000 3000 2000 1000 0 O N D J F M A M J J A S Months Hydrograph of the Yakima River 1988 1989 A The water is warmest in late summer. B The amount of water in the river increases in spring. C There is more rain in spring. D The flow decreases in winter because wind patterns change. Page 86 82 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date Biology Practice Test 1 continued 6. A drawing of ATP is shown below. Base (adenine) Phosphate groups Sugar (ribose) P P P How is this molecule MOST OFTEN involved with the production of energy in a cell? A Energy is produced when a fourth phosphate group binds to the molecule. B Energy is produced when the sugar ribose is metabolized in the Krebs cycle. C Energy is released when the adenine base is used to form part of an RNA molecule. D Energy is released when the third phosphate group breaks off. 7. A student mistakenly transfers a protozoan from a marine culture to a drop of fresh water on a microscope slide. While observing the slide, the student notices that the protozoan begins to swell and quickly transfers the organism back into a drop of salt water. What process did the student observe? A active transport B osmosis C endocytosis D exocytosis 8. A student is planning a field investigation to compare the numbers of insects and spiders in two different one-square-meter areas that she has marked. One area includes a rotting tree in the woods behind her school. The other is in the parking lot of her school. Which would be the MOST accurate prediction to make before the investigation begins? A The area in the parking lot will contain more spiders than insects. B The area in the woods will contain equal numbers of spiders and insects. C Both areas will contain more centipedes and millipedes than insects and spiders. D The area in the woods will contain more insects and spiders than the area in the parking lot. Page 87 Name Date 83 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Biology Practice Test 1 continued 9. Rosa compared the arthropod that she collected with a dead specimen that is part of her teacher’s labeled collection of arthropods. The dead specimen, labeled an arachnid, looks identical to the live arthropod, except that the dead specimen has only six legs and is asym- metrical. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY true? A The live arthropod is an insect that has grown extra legs due to a mutation. B The dead specimen is a nymph and is missing legs because it did not fully mature. C The dead specimen is an insect, because it has six legs and an asymmetrical body plan. D The dead specimen is an arachnid that has been damaged. Two of the legs are missing. 10. Which of the following are anaerobic processes of cellular respiration? A splitting water and the Krebs cycle B the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain C lactic acid fermentation and alcoholic fermentation D the electron transport chain and alcoholic fermentation 11. Most eukaryotic cells contain the organelles shown in the diagrams below. An animal cell is depicted on the left, while a plant cell is shown on the right. Cells may have different shapes and different amounts of organelles, depending on their function. Animal cell Plant cell Mitochondrion Vesicle Ribosomes Golgi apparatus Smooth ER Rough ER Cell membrane Nucleus Nucleolus Cytoskeleton fibers Chloroplast Cell membrane Vesicle Golgi apparatus Smooth ER Rough ER Nucleus Nucleolus Cytoskeleton fibers Cell wall Mitochondrion Ribosome Central vacuole What two structures are found in a plant cell that are NOT found in an animal cell? A cell wall and chloroplast B central vacuole and food vacuole C nucleus and chloroplast D Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum Page 88 84 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date Biology Practice Test 1 continued 12. Which of the following BEST describes the factors that influence protein folding? A Protein folding depends on the sequence of amino acids and fatty acids that make up the protein. B Protein folding results from the interactions of the double helix and the nucleotide bases that form it. C Protein folding is completely dependent on how amino acids interact with transfer RNA molecules. D Protein folding depends on the sequence of amino acids, the interactions of amino acids with each other, and the interaction of amino acids with water. 13. What are the bonds between water molecules called? A covalent bonds only B hydrogen bonds only C ionic and covalent bonds D covalent and hydrogen bonds 14. A student measured the temperature outside her classroom every hour starting at 9:00 A.M. and ending at 3:00 P.M. Her measurements are given in the table below. Time Temperature 9:00 25°C 10:00 26°C 11:00 28°C 12:00 29°C 1:00 29°C 2:00 29°C 3:00 27°C This student wanted to grow a culture of yeast. The optimal temperature for the yeast growth is between 27°C and 31°C. It takes five hours for the yeast to grow. When should the student begin her culture? A at 9:00 .. B before 10:00 .. C after 11:00 .. D any time between 9:00 .. and 11:00 .. Page 89 Name Date 85 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Biology Practice Test 1 continued 15. Look at the carbon cycle in the illustration below. Cellular respiration Combustion Photosynthesis Death and decomposition Fossil fuels Limestone Marine plankton remains Carbon dioxide CO2 in atmosphere Dissolved CO2 in water Which of the following is a major contributor to increases in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere? A death and decomposition B combustion C photosynthesis D formation of fossil fuels 16. Which of the following is a result of the heat-trapping ability of some gases in the atmosphere? A acid rain B the greenhouse effect C the creation of CFCs D increased levels of ultraviolet radiation 17. What is the major role of plants in the water cycle? A To move water between the atmosphere and land by precipitation. B To move water between the soil and rivers by percolation. C To move water between the soil and the atmosphere by transpiration. D To move water between lakes and the atmosphere by evaporation. Page 90 86 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 18. In which biogeochemical cycle do the symbiotic bacteria in the roots of many plants play an important role? A carbon cycle B nitrogen cycle C phosphorus cycle D water cycle 19. Which of the following is an example of coevolution? A plants producing spines, thorns, or nettles to protect themselves against predators B birds leaving the nest where they were born C animals learning to graze for food D stomach enzymes operating optimally in acid environments Observing Oil and Water Ask a Question 1. How far will one drop of oil spread in a pan of water? Form a Hypothesis 2. Write a hypothesis that could answer the question above. Test the Hypothesis 3. Use a pipet to place one drop of oil into the middle of a pan of water. Caution: Machine oil is poison- ous. Wear goggles and gloves. Keep materials that have contacted oil out of your mouth and eyes. 4. Observe what happens to the drop of oil for the next few seconds. Record your observations. 5. Using a metric ruler, measure the diameter of the oil slick to the nearest centimeter. 6. Determine the area of the oil slick in square centimeters. Use the formula (A = πr 2 ) to find the area of a circle The radius (r ) is equal to the diameter you measured in step 5 divided by 2. 20. What experiment is described by the procedure above? A Determine whether water and oil will mix. B Determine how far a drop of oil will spread on water. C Determine the volume of oil in a drop. D Determine whether oil floats or sinks in water. Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 91 Name Date 87 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 21. Scientists confirm that a new experimental result is reliable by A checking the background of the researcher who reported the result. B reproducing the result in other labs. C checking the calculations to be sure they are correct. D reading journals to see if anyone else agrees with the results. 22. What makes a hypothesis testable? A if it is based on accurate observations B if an experiment can be designed to test it C if it contains an opinion that other scientists share D if it is based on a theory accepted by many scientists 23. Which of the following is untrue and therefore NOT a reason for scientists to wait to revise a theory based on inconsistent results. Scientists must A meet to discuss the change. B carefully consider the new data to be certain it is not flawed. C see a significant difference in order to change theories based on many experiments. D confirm and support the new data by other evidence. 24. Look at the illustration below. What does the figure represent? A a protein B a nitrogen base C a five-carbon sugar D a piece of double-stranded DNA Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 92 88 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 25. What is the name of a cell vesicle that contains enzymes that destroy damaged cell organelles? A endoplasmic reticulum B Golgi complex C lysosome D mitochondria 26. A food chain in an open prairie contains four components: grass, mice, snakes, and hawks. hawks snakes mice grass If a snake represents 580 J of energy, estimate how much energy is represented by the grass in this ecosystem. A 0.058 J B 58 J C 5800 J D 58,000 J 27. Which of the following is a characteristic of active transport? A It moves substances with a concentration gradient. B It requires energy from the cell. C It involves facilitated diffusion. D It relies on vesicles that often function as pumps. 28. For a certain plant, purple flowers (P) are dominant, and white flowers (p) are recessive. A homozygous purple plant is crossed with a homozygous white plant. What are the possible genotypes of the offspring? A pp only C Pp only B PP only D PP, pp, and Pp Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 93 Name Date 89 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 29. What happens to the light absorbed by a plant during photosynthesis? A It is converted to kinetic energy. B It powers a reaction that produces oxygen and carbon dioxide. C It is converted to chemical energy, which the plant stores. D It powers a reaction that produces carbon dioxide and water. 30. Examine the equation below. 3CO2 3H2O C3H6O3 3O2 light carbon dioxide water 3 carbon sugar oxygen gas ➞ + + What process is described by this equation? A photosynthesis B glycolysis C cellular respiration D fermentation 31. A strand of mRNA contains 36 nucleotides. How many amino acids are there on the corre- sponding polypeptide chain? A 10 B 12 C 36 D 108 32. Which of the following is an environmental effect associated with acid rain? A damage to trees and a decline of forest communities B an increase in CO2 in Earth’s atmosphere C lower levels of pollution D increase in number of aquatic organisms in lakes and streams Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 94 90 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 33. A student crossed plants that were hybrid for the traits of flower color, seed color, and seed shape as part of an investigation designed to verify the results of Gregor Mendel’s experiments. The table below displays the results. RASHEED’S RESULTS Characteristic Offspring phenotypes Ratio Flower color 705 purple 224 white 3:1 Seed color 6,002 yellow 2,001 green ? Seed shape 5,474 round 1,850 wrinkled ? Based on the information in the table above, which of the following is a valid conclusion? A White flowers are dominant. B Yellow seeds are a recessive trait. C Wrinkled seeds are a recessive trait. D Flower color is the result of incomplete dominance. 34. Mendel crossed a true-breeding tall plant (TT) with a true-breeding short plant (tt). What are the possible phenotypes for the offspring? A all tall B all short C ratio of 1 tall : 1 short D ratio of 2 tall : 1 short 35. Examine the drawings below 1 2 3 4 Which drawing shows chromosomes being pulled by spindle fibers to opposite ends of the cell? A Drawing 1 B Drawing 2 C Drawing 3 D Drawing 4 Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 95 Name Date 91 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 36. Which of the following happens in meiosis I but NOT in meiosis II? A Offspring cells are formed following telophase. B Spindle fibers attach to genetic material during metaphase. C Chromosomes line up along the equator during metaphase. D Homologous chromosomes separate. 37. Which of the following is a prediction based on the theory of evolution? A Closely related species will show similarities in nucleotide sequences. B Even if species have changed over time, their genes should remain the same. C Members of the same species will have identical nucleotide sequences. D It is very unlikely for a species to change over time. 38. Where does strong evidence for evolution come from? A forensic biology B phylogenetic trees C works of philosophy D the fossil record 39. The diagram below shows a sampling of Galápagos finches. These finches are similar to the ones that Charles Darwin studied when he developed the theory of evolution. The evolution of beak sizes in Galápagos finches is a response to which of the following? A how finches use their beaks B the types of seeds available C whether the populations interbreed D the nutritional content of the seeds Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 96 92 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 40. Fossil evidence shows that there have been periods on Earth when many species go extinct during a relatively short time period. Describe what is observed in the aftermath of each of Earth’s great mass extinctions. A the destruction of Earth’s ecosystems B a burst of evolution C geological and weather changes D overpopulation of bacteria 41. Researchers have found that the Abert’s squirrel population on the South Rim of the Grand Canyon fluctuates from year to year, increasing one year and decreasing the next. Which of the following factors would cause the squirrel population to grow? A Emigration is greater than immigration. B The birth rate is equal to the death rate. C The death rate is higher than the birth rate. D The birth rate is greater than the death rate. 42. Immigration to the United States in the 1800s from eastern Europe is an example of which type of force for genetic change? A gene flow through interbreeding B increased birth rate C increased chance of genetic mutation D genetic equilibrium 43. A biologist went into a marshy area to collect water samples that could be tested for possible toxic chemicals. The marsh was known to contain leeches. What kind of safety precautions should the biologist take? A wear waterproof gloves and sturdy waterproof boots B wear safety goggles C carry sample containers with lids that can be securely sealed D carry insect repellant to ward off leeches Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 97 Name Date 93 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 44. Look at the figures shown below. Phosphate group P Base Sugar Nucleotide Which of the following BEST describes how Figure A and Figure B relate to each other? A Figure A is a fatty acid and Figure B is a cell. Fatty acids make up the cell membrane, keeping hydrophilic materials from diffusing in and out of the cell. B Figure B shows a nucleotide base and Figure A shows a molecule of DNA. The sequence of nucleotide bases in a molecule of DNA makes up an organism’s genetic code. C Figure A is a protein and Figure B is an amino acid. The sequence of amino acids plays a major role in determining the shape of a protein. D Figure B is a chlorophyll molecule and Figure A is a thylacoid. The thylacoid is the site of photosynthesis where chlorophyll captures photons. 45. Infer the effect that a change in a sequence of bases might have on an organism. A DNA could change into RNA. B The DNA nucleotide could form an ATP nucleotide. C The function of a gene could change. D Nucleotides are so small that one change would have no effect. 46. The development of recombinant DNA technology was a major step forward in genetic sci- ence. Which of the following developments represents an advance in medicine that the application of genetic science allowed? A development of a method of DNA fingerprinting B production of proteins, such as insulin, for use as drugs C cloning of animals and engineering of agricultural crops D development of genetic counseling as a career Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 98 94 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 47. The human body is a complex system of cells, tissues, and organs that perform highly specialized functions. In addition, cells, tissues, and organs from one organ system must com- municate and cooperate with cells, tissues, and organs from other organ systems. Figure 1 Figure 2 Alveolus Capillary wall BLOOD CO2 O2 Which cells in Figure 2 are of greatest importance to the process shown in Figure 1? A white blood cells B red blood cells C platelets D germ cells 48. A scientist discovered a previously unknown organism. The organism did not move, eat, or make its own food. Based on these observations, the scientist concluded that the organism was which of the following? A an animal B a fungus C a plant D a protist Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 99 Name Date 95 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 49. Joseph Lister, a British surgeon, was one of the first adherents to the germ theory of disease. He hypothesized that disease did not spontaneously happen, but rather that microorganisms caused disease. He tried to prevent disease by keeping his surgery germ free. Lister tested his hypothesis on patients in the hospital’s Male Accident Ward. Look at the graph. Did data from the experiment lend support to Lister’s hypothesis? A The data supported his hypothesis, because the death rate dropped from 45% to 15%. B The results were not conclusive, because it is impossible to determine what the dependent variable was. C It is not possible to tell, because more information on how he collected the data is needed. D The data did not support the hypothesis, because death rate declines are not a good mea- sure of the experiment’s success. 50. Which of the following factors would have a substantial effect on the results of an experiment designed to determine which brand of bar soap MOST effectively kills bacteria? A the ingredients found in the soap B the shape of the soap C the time of day the soap was used D the color of the soap 51. Which organism has the same role as lions in the savanna? A algae in the ocean B coyote in the chaparral C grasshopper in the prairie D tree frog in the tropical rain forest Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 100 96 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 52. In which biome would you find most nocturnal animals? A desert B savanna C taiga D tundra 53. Look at the map of Earth’s climate zones below. Where are biomes with the largest number of plant and animal species located? 66.5N 23.5N 0 23.5S 66.5S Polar Zone Temperate Zone Tropical Zone Tropical Zone Temperate Zone Polar Zone A in the polar zones B in the tropical zones C in the temperate zones D only in the northern portion of the tropical zones 54. Radiant energy from the sun is converted to chemical energy by the process of A diffusion. B osmosis. C photosynthesis. D mitosis. Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 101 Name Date 97 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 55. The single-celled organism shown in the illustration below uses a whiplike structure to move. Chloroplast Nucleus Cell wall What is the whiplike structure called? A nucleus B chloroplast C cilia D flagellum 56. Which organelles consist of membranous tubes and sacs and serve as part of the cell’s packag- ing and transport system? A mitochondria and lysosomes B mitochondria and chloroplasts C ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum D Golgi apparatus and smooth endoplasmic reticulum 57. Which of the following are found in eukaryotes but NOT in prokaryotes? A mitochondria B DNA C cell membranes D receptor proteins 58. Which of the following cells would NOT reproduce through mitosis? A germ cells B hair cells C intestinal cells D skin cells Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 102 98 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 59. Look at the following diagram. DNA RNA A B C D What is the name of the process that happens in step C? A translation B transcription C replication D mitosis 60. A moss plant completely stops photosynthesizing. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause? A too much carbon dioxide B excessive sunlight C lack of water D not enough oxygen 61. What is the advantage to the sessile sea cucumber of having a larval stage that can swim? A Swimming larvae provide no particular advantage to the sea cucumber. B By swimming around, the larvae can find more mates and increase genetic variation in the population. C The larvae can disperse to new areas, so the adults will have less competition for resources. D Swimming larvae find more food and grow faster than sessile larvae. 62. Which is a characteristic of amphibians that allowed them to thrive on land? A swim bladder to store oxygen when on land B radial symmetry to allow movement in all directions C scales to protect against drying out D thin skin to allow for oxygen uptake Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 103 Name Date 99 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 63. Which of the following traits is uniquely human among all mammals? A opposable thumb B rotating shoulder C color vision D bipeda lism 64. Which of the following is true when a sarcomere is fully contracted? A Myosin and actin maximally overlap each other. B The sarcomere is at its longest length. C Myosin and actin are not connected at all. D ATP is not being used. 65. Examine the figures below. Figure 1 Figure 2 A B C F E D Apple Blossom Corn Grain Look at the diagram in Figure 1. In which part(s) of an apple blossom does the zygote develop? A part A B part B C part D D parts E and F Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 104 100 Name Date 66. In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f). According to the Punnett square below, what genotype does the child in box 3 have? Female Ff Male Ff F f F f 1 3 2 4 A FF B Ff C ff D FM 67. Modern scientific explanations of evolution A have replaced Darwin’s theory. B fail to explain how traits are inherited. C rely on genetics instead of natural selection. D combine the principles of natural selection and genetic inheritance. © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 105 Name Date 101 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 68. The populations of fish and amphibians in a lake more than 100 miles downwind from a coal-fired power plant suddenly began to decline. Biologists sampled the water in the lake and found that it had a pH of 2.4. What hypothesis could the biologists develop based on their finding? A Pollutants from the power plant are making the lake water too alkaline to support life. B The pH of the lake water is normal, so the decline in fish and amphibian populations has some other cause. C The lake water has become very acidic because of pollutants from the power plant. D Acid rain that has fallen on the lake has come from a pollution source close to the lake. 69. Cyanobacteria changed the early Earth’s atmosphere by giving off which gas? A carbon dioxide B ammonia C hydrogen D oxygen 70. The movement of materials across the cell membrane is vital to the health of the cell and the organism as a whole. Which of the following movements would require active transport? A moving a substance down a concentration gradient B moving a substance against a concentration gradient C moving a substance from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration D moving a substance by osmosis Biology Practice Test 1 continued Page 106 102 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 1. A community of plants growing in a terrarium can grow even if the terrarium is sealed. Which of these possible explanations is NOT a reasonable hypothesis to explain how this can happen? A A particular plant in the terrarium does not appear as healthy as other plants. B There was enough carbon dioxide initially to support the growth for a long time. C Some kind of decomposer that releases carbon dioxide is growing in the terrarium. D The sealed terrarium actually has small openings that allow exchange of air with the out- side environment. 2. The pie chart below summarizes the relative amounts of dissolved salts found in a sample of ocean water. Based on the pie chart, which of the following is NOT a valid conclusion? Chlorine = 55.0% Sodium = 30.6% Calcium = 1.2% Potassium = 1.1% Other = 0.7% Sulfur = 3.7% Magnesium = 7.7% A Magnesium salts are more than twice as common as sulfur salts. B The ocean tastes salty because the most abundant dissolved solid is sodium chloride. C The dissolved sodium chloride found in the sample is a different compound than the sodium chloride used in cooking. D Because there is a greater amount of chlorine in the sample than sodium, there must be additional sources of chlorine in the environment besides the compound sodium chloride. 3. Sarah designed an experiment and wrote instructions. Which of the following would best test the clarity of the instructions? A Sarah uses the instructions to conduct the experiment. B One classmate uses the instructions to conduct the experiment. C Two classmates read the instructions about the experiment. D Ten classmates use the instructions to conduct the experiment. Biology Practice Test 2 Page 107 Name Date 103 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 4. Why would a scientist make a note in her lab report procedure of the particular brand of equipment she is using in an experiment? A The equipment might break and she will have to buy a new one to replace it. B The company that sold her the equipment might give her money for advertising. C By claiming that brand, she prevents other scientists from using it in their studies. D That particular brand of equipment might have an effect on the results of the experiment. 5. What happens if it is unclear whether new data show a significant difference from an accepted theory? A The new data are ignored. B The results are not published in journals until they can be repeated. C The theory is modified just in case the data is reliable. D Scientists try to design other experiments to test the new information. 6. A scientist set up two glass fish tanks. She put 5 L of water, a small fish, and several plants in each tank. She then sealed the tops of both tanks so that no air could leave or enter. Tank A was placed in bright light. Tank B was placed in a dark room. After 45 hours, the fish in the tank that was kept in darkness died. The fish in the brightly lit tank remained healthy for more than 96 hours. Based on the results of the experiment described above, what conclusion can you draw about the relationship between the tank conditions and the organisms that live within the tank? A Fish cannot survive in an overcrowded tank. B Fish cannot survive in a tank that does not contain plants. C Fish cannot survive in a plant-filled tank kept in darkness for 45 hours. D Fish cannot survive in a plant-filled tank that has been sealed so that no air can leave or enter. Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 108 104 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 7. Living things use enzymes in chemical reactions to release energy. How do these enzymes affect the reactions in which they take part? A Their shapes allow the enzymes to bind only with certain substances. B The enzymes decrease the activation energy of the reaction. C The enzymes increase the activation energy of the reaction. D Most enzymes slow down the speed of the chemical reaction. 8. In all organisms and viruses, what type of biological molecules contains instructions for speci- fying the characteristics of living things? A carbohydrates B lipids C nucleic acids D proteins 9. The bar graph below shows that forest A contains 25 different plant species. Forest B contains 60 different plant species. 100 50 0 Number of species Forest A Forest B Which statement is true of forest B? A It is larger and more stable than forest A. B It is more productive and more stable than forest A. C It is older and more productive than forest A. D It is older and larger than forest A. Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 109 Name Date 105 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 10. Which of the following is a characteristic that biologists use to classify organisms into kingdoms? A cell type B cell size C body size D body color 11 . After a severe fire in a forest, biologists observed that new lodgepole pine seedlings began to sprout in the burned areas. The lodgepole pinecones are sealed with a resin that requires great heat to break open and release seeds. Which of the following is the BEST description of this adaptation? A Lodgepole pine seeds sprout easily. B Lodgepole pine will grow where other plants cannot. C Lodgepole pine is adapted to frequent forest fires. D Not all lodgepole pine seeds are contained in a cone. 12. The Yellowstone area contains organisms representing all trophic levels, including plants, algae, mosses, fungi, blue jays, fish, and grizzly bears. Which sequence BEST represents the transfer of energy through Yellowstone trophic levels? A blue jay to moss to fungi to plant B fungi to moss to algae to fish C plant to blue jay to algae to grizzly bear D algae to fish to grizzly bear to fungi Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 110 106 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 13. Look at the diagram of a cell below. STRUCTURE OF A CELL Which structure is MOST like a furnace that heats your home? A endoplasmic reticulum B mitochondrion C nucleus D ribosome 14. For many years, the population of Canadian geese in the Chicago area increased at a rapid rate. Suddenly, the increase in size of the population slowed to an increase of only 1% per year. Scientist Charles Paine investigated this change in several ways. He tracked adults with radio collars. He studied the behavior of goose predators and changes in the population size of goose predators. A colleague of Charles Paine from a university in the Chicago area told him that the number of coyotes living in the city had increased dramatically in recent years. Which of the following is a testable hypothesis that addresses why the increase in size of the goose population has slowed? A Coyotes are eating more geese, which is causing the growth rate of the goose population to decrease. B Geese in Asia have contracted a type of bird flu. C The geese are lacking in an essential vitamin. D Coyotes are known predators of geese. 15. Which of the following are proteins in your body? A collagen and hemoglobin B cholesterol and antibodies C glycogen and fructose D chlorophyll and hemoglobin Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 111 Name Date 107 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 16. A red blood cell has a flattened disc shape, as illustrated below. What advantage does the shape of a red blood cell provide? A increases its surface area-to-volume ratio so it can take in nutrients efficiently B decreases its surface area-to-volume ratio in order to limit cell growth C increases its surface area-to-volume ratio so that the cell can grow much larger D decreases its surface area-to-volume ratio so more cells can fit in a blood vessel 17. Enzymes in your body probably work BEST at what temperature? A 25°C B 30°C C 37°C D 98°C 18. What is the role of a catalyst? A provides extra energy for a reaction B lowers the activation energy of a reaction C eliminates the activation energy of a reaction D only allows irreversible reactions to happen Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 112 108 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 19. The table below compares bacteria and eukaryotes. BACTERIA EUKARYOTES A No cell nucleus Cell nucleus B Smaller Larger C Circular DNA Linear DNA D Only aerobic Aerobic and anaerobic Which of the comparisons in the table is NOT correct? A comparison A B comparison B C comparison C D comparison D 20. Demographers use population trends to predict what may happen to the human population in the future. The age structure of a population will affect the size of the future population. The level of education also affects future population. Populations with a high level of edu- cation often have slower growth rates than populations with a high level of illiteracy. The education of women is particularly important to slowing population growth. Infant mortal- ity rates and cultural approaches to family planning also greatly affect how a population will grow or shrink over time. Human Population Growth P opulation (in billions) Year 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 Source: U.S. Census Bureau. 4000 BCE 3000 BCE 2000 BCE 1000 BCE 1 CE 1000 CE 2005 CE What kind of growth happened in the human population after 1700? A negative growth B exponential growth C linear growth D historical growth Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 113 Name Date 109 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 21. Which of the following is NOT a result of the increasing human population? A less undeveloped land available for animal habitats B more stress on natural resources such as water C increased carrying capacity of many ecosystems D fewer old-growth forests 22. Plants capture energy by absorbing light and using it to break weaker bonds in reactants. They then create molecules that can be assembled into larger molecules that can be used as a source of energy for all of life’s processes. These molecules are called organic compounds. Which of the following is/are found in all organic compounds? A nitrogen B oxygen C carbon D amino acids 23. Which statement BEST explains the role of plants in the water cycle? A Plants take up water from the soil and release water through their stomata in the form of vapor in a process called transpiration. B Plants take up water in the form of dew on their leaves and give off water through their roots in a process called transpiration. C Plants add water to the water cycle as a byproduct of cellular respiration, which they per- form at night. D Plants add additional water to the water cycle by making water during photosynthesis and giving off water vapor during transpiration. 24. In a population of clover flowers, there are both white and purple varieties. The cows that graze the field where the clovers grow prefer the purple variety. Over time, the white clover flowers become much more numerous and the purple ones more scarce. This is an example of what process? A evolution B genetic mutation C reproduction D natural selection Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 114 110 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 25. Examine the diagram below. What process is illustrated? A succession B ecological bottleneck C pioneer speciation D ecosystem boundaries 26. Lamont conducted an investigation of four ant piles to see whether the amount of sunlight they got affected their activity. One ant pile was located in a sunny area, one ant pile was in a shady area, and the other two ant piles were in partly shaded areas. After five days, he noticed that the ant pile in the shady area had no ants. Which of the following statements BEST describes what Lamont should do? A He should stop observing that ant pile because it no longer pertains to his investigation. B He should revise his hypothesis and begin a new investigation omitting the shaded ant pile. C He should make a note of the date and time that he noticed no activity in the shaded ant pile. D He should remove the object that is shading that ant pile so that it will receive more sunlight. 27. Although Arizona has abundant forests, grasslands and deserts, Arizona also has limited water. Which practice would help keep Arizona’s natural resources renewable? A Banning hunting on public land B restricting development near Phoenix C conserving water D reducing the spread of diseases such as Hantavirus Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 115 Name Date 111 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 28. Mitochondria are important organelles within a cell. What would most likely happen if a cell’s mitochondria were not functioning properly? A The cell’s level of ATP would decrease. B The cell’s level of sugar would decrease. C The cell would use lysosomes to release energy. D The cell would create new mitochondria by cell division. 29. Plant cells have the organelle shown on the previous page that makes food for the plant through a process called photosynthesis. Which of the following statements about photosyn- thesis is NOT true? A It requires light energy. B It takes place in the leaves of plants. C It requires a pigment known as chromatid. D It converts light energy into chemical energy. 30. Some plants have stems that can hold water and carry on photosynthesis, and almost no leaves. In which type of habitat would this be important? A grassland B rainforest C swamp D desert 31. Public officials in South Carolina had to decide whether to build a new coal-fired electric power plant or invest in developing more solar energy. Which of the following sums up the arguments likely made by those who favored coal and those who favored solar energy? A pro-coal: invest in this relatively cheap and reliable energy source; pro-solar: invest in solar energy because coal supplies are running out faster than oil supplies B pro-coal: coal mines need more business; pro-solar: South Carolina is an ideal state for solar energy because of its abundant sunshine C pro-coal: a coal-fired power plant gives off less pollution than any other type of power plant; pro-solar: investments in solar energy will help develop technologies for safer nuclear power plants D pro-coal: coal is a relatively cheap and abundant energy source; pro-solar: South Carolina is ideal for solar energy, which produces no pollutants, because of its abundant sunshine Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 116 112 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 32. A South Carolina farmer wanted to plant crops on acreage that covered a steep slope of a hill. The farmer was afraid, however, that the heavy spring rains would wash away the thin soil. The farmer asked an expert at a state university for advice. What did the expert MOST LIKELY advise the farmer to do? A Use a lot of fertilizer so that the crops could be harvested before the rains came. B Do not plant crops on any South Carolina land that is not perfectly flat. C Plow the land to create a series of flat steps, or terraces. D Dig a deep ditch all around the farm field to catch the runoff water and soil. 33. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between Calories and types of biomolecules? A Carbohydrates have the highest Caloric yield because they contain glucose. B Fats have a much higher Caloric yield than carbohydrates do, which is why they are used for energy storage. C The primary fuel for cellular respiration is protein, which is why there are so many ribo- somes in cells. D Starches and glucose can easily be broken down to sucrose, which goes straight into the Krebs cycle and results in extremely high Caloric yields. 34. Chloroplasts are the site of photosynthesis in plants. During photosynthesis and in the Calvin cycle, carbon dioxide is harvested and eventually fixed into sugar. How many molecules of car- bon dioxide are required to make three molecules of glucose? A 3 B 9 C 12 D 18 35. The mitochondrion is the site of cellular respiration in eukaryotic cells. After glycolysis, if oxygen is absent, what process do cells use to recycle NAD+? A the Krebs cycle B the Calvin cycle C fermentation D the electron transport chain Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 117 Name Date 113 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 36. The illustration below shows a tick feeding on a human. Of what type of ecological interaction is this an example? A mutualism B commensalism C succession D parasitism 37. An animal that feeds on plants is, at the least, in which of the following? A first trophic level B second trophic level C third trophic level D fourth trophic level 38. Why do the traits of individuals best adapted to survive become MORE common in each new generation? A Fewer offspring without those traits survive and reproduce. B The alleles responsible for those traits increase through natural selection. C Those individuals do not breed. D Natural selection does not affect well-adapted individuals. 39. A student is examining a single-celled photosynthetic protist that forms a double shell made from silica. Which of the following does this organism have? A a lysosome B a chloroplast C DNA not bound in a membrane D a capsule surrounding its cell walls Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 118 114 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 40. Examine the following diagrams. They show four stages of a cell dividing. 1 2 3 4 Which of the following is the correct sequence of events? A 1, 2, 3, 4 B 2, 4, 3, 1 C 1, 3, 2, 4 D 4, 3, 1, 2 41. Which membrane proteins transmit information into the cell by responding to signal molecules? A carrier proteins B receptor proteins C marker proteins D structural proteins 42. Which of the following is true of the genetic code? A Every gene can be linked to a single outcome. B Every gene is expressed in a trait. C Each trait springs from one gene. D Gene expression is affected by the cell environment. Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 119 Name Date 115 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 43. The illustration below shows a cell and a large particle. Many substances, such as proteins and polysaccharides, are too large to be transported into a cell by carrier proteins. In a process called endocytosis, the large particle is brought into the cell. 1 2 3 Which of the following statements correctly summarizes this process? A Waste materials can enter the cell by the same process. B The particle passes directly through a protein doorway in the cell membrane. C The particle passes directly through the phospholipids that make up the cell membrane. D The cell membrane surrounds the particle and forms a vesicle that is brought into the cell. 44. The sequence of bases on one strand of a DNA molecule is AGCCTAG. What is the sequence of nitrogen bases on the other strand? A AGCCTAG B TCGGATC C GATCCGA D CTAGGCA 45. Which of the following is true of bacteria? A Bacteria can only live in extreme environments such as hot springs or the deep ocean. B Evidence of the existence of bacteria extends back more than 3.5 billion years. C Bacteria are the source of many diseases and only have a negative impact on human health. D Bacteria are not considered true life forms because they rely on host cells for reproduction. Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 120 116 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 46. This Punnett square shows a cross between two rabbits. In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b) B b Bb Bb B 1 2 b 3 4 What is the phenotype of the offspring indicated by Box 3? A brown B a mixture of brown and black C black D It is impossible to determine from the information given. 47. A mutation may be passed along to human offspring if it happens in which of the following? A somatic cells B gametes C introns D protein chains 48. Which of the following is considered a benefit of genetic engineering in agriculture? A Food crops with improved nutritional value have been produced. B Growth hormones have been eliminated from animal diets. C Food crops could pass on their altered genes to native plants. D Milk is made without lactose. 49. A strand of messenger RNA is attached to a ribosome and is directing protein synthesis. The next exposed codon of this messenger RNA has the code GAA. It is most likely to bond with a transfer RNA that has which anticodon? A CTT B CUU C GAA D TUU Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 121 Name Date 117 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 50. Examine the illustration below. Replication fork DNA helicase DNA polymerases New DNA New DNA Old DNA Old DNA Which of the following is shown in this illustration? A DNA translation B DNA replication C gene expression D transcription 51. To which of the following does convergent evolution lead? A shared homologous characters B infertile hybrid offspring C shared analogous characters D fertile cladistic offspring 52. Which of the following is a nonenvironmental factor that might cause a population to decrease in size? A emergence of disease resistance B increased availability of a food source C decreased predation D increased competition Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 122 118 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 53. The diagram below is a cladogram showing evolutionary relationships among the major animal phyla. Mollusks Arthropods Chordates Roundworms Annelids Echinoderms Flatworms Jellyfish Sponges Protist 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 7 9 Jellyfish Evolutionary milestones 1 Multicellularity 2 Tissues 3 Bilateral 4 Body 5 Coelom 6 Segmentation 7 Jointed 8 Deuterostomic development 9 Notochord !NIMAL Which of the two groups are MOST DISTANTLY related? A flatworms and jellyfish B chordates and mollusks C chordates and sponges D annelids and arthropods 54. Which of the following statements about photosynthesis is true? A It takes place in the leaves of plants. B It requires chemical energy. C It requires a pigment known as chromatid. D It converts chemical energy into light energy. Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 123 Name Date 119 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 55. What unique characteristic of animals distinguishes them from the members of the other kingdoms? A Animals are capable of more complex and rapid movements than are members of the other kingdoms. B Animals have cells with rigid cell walls. C Animals have organs but no tissues. D Animals include both aquatic and terrestrial species. 56. Why does the human body require carbohydrates, proteins, and fats? A The body uses these nutrients to synthesize inorganic compounds. B The body uses these vitamins to synthesize and maintain bones and nerves. C The body uses these organic compounds to provide energy to maintain life processes. D The body uses these inorganic compounds to maintain life processes and reproduce. 57 . In physics, a lever is a type of simple machine that transfers force from one part of a long, rigid structure to another. The drawing below shows a simple lever. Which of the following groups of human body parts acts as a lever? A the skull and brain B the muscles and bone in a limb C the skin and finger nails on a finger D the small and large intestines 58. Banyan trees are found in places such as Florida, Hawaii, and India. The unique characteristic of this tree is that roots grow down from its branches into the ground beneath the branches. The tree can appear to have several trunks. What advantage does the banyan tree have over other trees? A The roots make the tree more stable in high winds. B The roots provide shelter for ground-dwelling animals. C Aboveground roots are more protected from the sun. D Aboveground roots may dry out and die during droughts. Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 124 120 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date 59. Compare the function of the dermal tissue of a plant with the hide of an elephant. A Both form a skin, or protective outer covering, that protects the body of the plant and the elephant. B Dermal tissue forms the leaves of a plant, which are similar to the hide on an elephant’s ears. C Plants and animals are made of such different kinds of cells that no similarity in function is possible. D Both the dermal tissue of a plant and the hide of an elephant are covered with tiny hairs. 60. Examine the table below. Digestive Enzymes in the Small Intestine Enzyme Substrate Digested product Amylase (pancreas) starch disaccharides Trypsin (pancreas) proteins peptides Lipase (pancreas) fat fatty acid and glycerol Maltase, sucrase, lactase disaccharides monosaccharides peptides amino acids Peptidase Based on the information in the table, what would be one effect of an injured pancreas? A The blood levels of monosaccharides would increase. B The absorption of amino acids would be more efficient. C The levels of the enzymes amylase, trypsin, and lipase would increase. D Digestion of starches, proteins, and fats would be severely impaired. Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 125 Name Date 121 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 61. Which statement BEST describes the role of an enzyme in the process of digestion? A The active site of the enzyme binds to a substrate on a food molecule and the enzyme changes shape slightly, causing a chemical reaction to happen. B Because enzymes are proteins, they only react with other protein molecules, resulting in the production of glucose. C The active site of the enzyme attached to the substrate of a food molecule produces carbon molecules, the building blocks of cells. D The active site of an enzyme attached to a substrate prevents the chemical reactions involved in metabolism from happening too quickly. 62. Tuberculosis was one of the first diseases to be treated with antibiotics. Scientists have studied the bacteria that cause tuberculosis and the way patients respond to treatment. Which of the following BEST describes these findings? A The bacteria have become more sensitive to antibiotics due to evolution. B Patients are allergic to antibiotic treatment. C The bacteria have become resistant to antibiotics due to natural selection. D Patients frequently die from the antibiotic treatment. 63. Malaria is a tropical disease characterized by severe chills, headache, and fever. Malaria is caused by protists in the genus Plasmodium. The disease is spread from human to human when mosquitoes bite an infected person and transfer Plasmodium sporozoites to another person. Hoping to develop a product that prevents malarial infection, a scientist researches chemicals that kill different types of organisms. How might the scientist use a chemical to prevent the transmission of malaria from person to person? A The scientist might develop a chemical that kills all Plasmodium sporozoites found in water sources. B The scientist might test a chemical to determine whether it treats the more severe symp- toms of malaria, such as chills, headache, and fever. C The scientist might design a study to evaluate whether a chemical can kill the protist after it has been transmitted from one person to another. D The scientist might develop a chemical that kills either the mosquito that transfers the protist or the protist itself. Biology Practice Test 2 continued Page 126 122 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date Biology Practice Test 1 continued 64. As part of a laboratory experiment, a student crosses a truebreeding tall plant having alleles of (TT) with another plant having alleles of (Tt). Which of the following Punnett squares cor- rectly shows the cross? Tt Tt T T Tt t t Tt TT Tt T t TT T T Tt Tt Tt t t Tt T T Tt TT Tt T t Tt T t tt 65. A white flower that has the genotype pp is crossed with a purple flower that has the genotype PP. What are the possible genotypes of the offspring? A PP and pp B Pp C PP D pp 66. Which of the following was the main source of evidence upon which Mendel developed his laws of inheritance? A evidence from cross-breeding pea plants B On the Origin of Species by Charles Darwin C Watson and Crick’s model of the structure of DNA D diagrams of plant seeds under a compound light microscope A B C D Page 127 Name Date 123 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Biology Practice Test 1 continued 67. Which kingdom represents organisms that live in environments thought to be similar to those found when Earth first formed? A Archaebacteria B Fungi C Eubacteria D Protista 68. As the pH of an aquatic ecosystem decreases, there is a gradual decline in the plant and animal population. At a pH of 5.5, bacterial decomposers begin to die. At a pH of about 4.5, most fish are dead. How does pH = 4.5 compare to pH = 5.5? A pH of 4.5 is A 5 times less acidic. B 5 times more acidic. C 2 times more acidic. D 10 times more acidic. 69. Scientists have organized living things into levels, from the individual organism all the way up to the entire biosphere. What is the correct order of the levels between organism and biosphere? Organism ? ? ? Biosphere A organism ➔ ecosystem ➔ community ➔ population ➔ biosphere B organism ➔ community ➔ population ➔ ecosystem ➔ biosphere C organism ➔ population ➔ ecosystem ➔ community ➔ biosphere D organism ➔ population ➔ community ➔ ecosystem ➔ biosphere Page 128 124 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Name Date Biology Practice Test 1 continued 70. In 1859, Charles Darwin proposed that the environment exerts a strong influence over which individuals survive to produce offspring. His theory of natural selection states that in any population, there will be organisms that inherit certain characteristics that give them an advantage over their peers. If these individuals can pass these traits on to their offspring, their offspring will enjoy the same advantages. As the environment changes, new characteristics may become more advantageous. Individuals who adapt to these new conditions will live lon- ger and produce more offspring. Eventually, the population will look very different than it did originally. Which of the following adaptations would MOST LIKELY improve the chances that the organism will survive? A stronger scent that makes a frog easier to find B weaker scent that makes a flower less attractive to bees C stronger leg muscles that allow a rabbit to jump away from danger D weaker leg muscles that allow a gazelle to run slower Page 129 125 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 1. A B C D 2. A B C D 3. A B C D 4. A B C D 5. A B C D 6. A B C D 7. A B C D 8. A B C D 9. A B C D 10. A B C D 11. A B C D 12. A B C D 13. A B C D 14. A B C D 15. A B C D 16. A B C D 17. A B C D 18. A B C D 19. A B C D 20. A B C D 21. A B C D 22. A B C D 23. A B C D 24. A B C D 25. A B C D 26. A B C D 27. A B C D 28. A B C D 29. A B C D 30. A B C D 31. A B C D 32. A B C D 33. A B C D 34. A B C D 35. A B C D 36. A B C D 37. A B C D 38. A B C D 39. A B C D 40. A B C D 41. A B C D 42. A B C D 43. A B C D 44. A B C D 45. A B C D 46. A B C D 47. A B C D 48. A B C D 49. A B C D 50. A B C D 51. A B C D 52. A B C D 53. A B C D 54. A B C D 55. A B C D 56. A B C D 57. A B C D 58. A B C D 59. A B C D 60. A B C D 61. A B C D 62. A B C D 63. A B C D 64. A B C D 65. A B C D 66. A B C D 67. A B C D 68. A B C D 69. A B C D 70. A B C D Student Name: Class Date: Score Mississippi Biology Practice Test 1 Circle the correct answer. Page 130 Page 131 127 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y 1. A B C D 2. A B C D 3. A B C D 4. A B C D 5. A B C D 6. A B C D 7. A B C D 8. A B C D 9. A B C D 10. A B C D 11. A B C D 12. A B C D 13. A B C D 14. A B C D 15. A B C D 16. A B C D 17. A B C D 18. A B C D 19. A B C D 20. A B C D 21. A B C D 22. A B C D 23. A B C D 24. A B C D 25. A B C D 26. A B C D 27. A B C D 28. A B C D 29. A B C D 30. A B C D 31. A B C D 32. A B C D 33. A B C D 34. A B C D 35. A B C D 36. A B C D 37. A B C D 38. A B C D 39. A B C D 40. A B C D 41. A B C D 42. A B C D 43. A B C D 44. A B C D 45. A B C D 46. A B C D 47. A B C D 48. A B C D 49. A B C D 50. A B C D 51. A B C D 52. A B C D 53. A B C D 54. A B C D 55. A B C D 56. A B C D 57. A B C D 58. A B C D 59. A B C D 60. A B C D 61. A B C D 62. A B C D 63. A B C D 64. A B C D 65. A B C D 66. A B C D 67. A B C D 68. A B C D 69. A B C D 70. A B C D Student Name: Class Date: Score Mississippi Biology Practice Test 2 Circle the correct answer. Page 132 Page 133 129 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Mississippi Biology Answer Key Unit 1 Nature of Science Answer Standard 1. C 1f 2. B 1b 3. A 1d 4. B 1c 5. C 1c 6. B 1a 7. A 1c 8. A 1a 9. D 1d 10. B 1c 11. A 1c 12. C 1c 13. C 1d 14. A 1d 15. C 1d 16. B 1d 17. C 1d 18. D 1c 19. B 1c 20. A 1d 21. B 1c 22. C 1c 23. D 1d 24. C 1d 25. B 1d 26. A 1d 27. D 1g 28. B 1g 29. C 1g 30. D 1e 31. C 1e 32. A 1e 33. B 1f 34. C 1f 35. D 1f Unit 2 Biochemistry Answer Standard 1. B 2g 2. C 2a 3. A 2a 4. C 2d 5. D 2c 6. D 2g 7. A 4d 8. C 2b 9. A 2g 10 C 2g 11. D 2f 12. D 2g 13. C 2g 14. C 2f 15. C 2d 16. B 2d 17. B 2g 18. B 2g 19. B 2f 20. D 2a 21. D 2b 22. A 2e 23. D 2b Unit 3 Ecology Answer Standard 1. C 3c 2. B 3c 3. A 3c 4. C 3b 5. D 3b 6. C 3b 7. C 3b 8. A 3c 9. A 3b 10. A 3c 11. D 1d, 3c 12. C 3c 13. A 3b 14. D 3b 15. C 3b 16. C 3c 17. B 3c 18. D 3c 19. B 3a 20. D 3b 21. C 3c 22. A 3c 23. D 3b 24. B 3b 25. C 3b 26. C 3a 27. C 3a 28. C 3a 29. B 3a 30. C 3a 31. B 3a 32. D 3a 33. A 3a 34. C 3c 35. D 3a 36. C 3a 37. C 3a Page 134 130 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Mississippi Biology Answer Key Unit 4 Structure and Function Answer Standard 1. D 4c 2. D 4d 3. D 4a 4. C 4a 5. D 4a 6. C 4c 7. B 4a 8. C 4a 9. A 4c 10. A 4a 11. C 4b 12. D 4b 13. A 4b 14. C 4b 15. C 4b 16. B 4b 17. D 4a 18. D 4b 19. B 4b 20. C 4b 21. D 4b 22. D 4c 23. D 4a 24. C 4a 25. D 4a 26. A 4d 27. A 4a 28. B 4b 29. B 4b 30. C 4b 31. B 4d 32. A 4d 33. A 4d 34. A 4d 35 B 4b 36. B 4d 37. A 4d 38. B 4d 39. D 4d 40. A 4d 41. C 4c 42. C 4c 43. A 4c 44. D 4a 45. B 4c 46. C 4c 47. A 4c 48. C 4c 49. C 4c 50. A 4c 51. C 4c 52. A 4c 53. A 5a 54. D 4c 55. A 4a 56. B 4b Unit 5 Heredity Answer Standard 1. C 5b 2. B 5d 3. D 5a 4. A 5a 5. B 5c 6. B 5a 7. B 5a 8. D 5a 9. C 5a 10. D 5b 11. B 5a 12. A 5a 13. B 5d 14. B 5a 15. D 5d 16. D 5a 17. C 5a 18. A 5a 19. C 5d 20. D 5a 21. A 5d 22. A 5a 23. C 5d 24. B 5a 25. D 5a 26. C 5a Page 135 131 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Mississippi Biology Answer Key Unit 6 Evolution Answer Standard 1. B 6d 2. D 6d 3. D 6d 4. D 6d 5. B 6d 6. B 6c 7. D 6b 8. C 6d 9. A 6c 10. B 6a 11. B 6d 12. B 6d 13. A 6c 14. C 6a 15. D 6b 16. A 6d 17. C 6a 18. B 6d 19. D 6b 20. A 6a 21. C 6a 22. C 6a 23. A 6a 24. C 6d 25. C 6b 26. B 6a 27. C 6a 28. B 6d 29. C 6d 30. B 4b 31. A 3b 32. D 6a 33. A 6a 34. D 6e 35. D 6a 36. A 6a 37. D 6a 38. C 6a 39. A 6a 40. B 6a 41. B 6a 42. B 6d 43. D 3c 44. A 6a 45. B 6a 46. C 6a Practice Test 1 Answer Standard 1. D 1b 2. C 1e 3. A 1e 4. B 1e 5. B 1e 6. D 2f 7. B 2b 8. D 6a 9. D 6a 10. B 2g 11. A 4a 12. D 2d 13. B 2a 14. C 1d 15. B 3c 16. B 3c 17. C 3b 18. B 3b 19. A 6d 20. B 1b 21. B 1f 22. B 1b 23. A 1g 24. D 2d 25. C 2e 26. D 3b 27. B 4a 28. C 5b 29. C 2g 30. A 2g 31. B 5a 32. A 3c 33. C 5b 34. A 5b 35. C 4b 36. D 4b 37. A 6c 38. D 1c 39. B 6d 40. B 6b 41. D 6d 42. A 6b Page 136 132 © H ough ton M ifflin H arcou rt Pub lishin g C om p an y Mississippi Biology Answer Key 43. A 1a 44. B 5a 45. C 5d 46. B 5d 47. B 4c 48. B 6a 49. A 1d 50. A 1c 51. B 3a 52. A 3a 53. B 3a 54. C 2g 55. D 4a 56 D 4a 57. A 4a 58. A 4b 59. A 5a 60. C 2g 61. C 6d 62. D 6d 63. D 6a 64. A 4c 65. C 4d 66. B 5c 67. D 6c 68. C 2c 69. D 6e 70. B 4a Practice Test 2 Answer Standard 1. A 1b 2. C 1e 3. D 1b 4. D 1b 5. D 1f 6. C 1c 7. B 2e 8. C 2d 9. B 1d 10. A 6a 11. C 3a 12. D 3b 13. B 4a 14. A 3b 15. A 2d 16. A 4c 17. C 2e 18. B 2e 19. D 4a 20. B 1d 21. C 3c 22. C 2d 23. A 3b 24. D 6d 25. A 3c 26. C 1g 27. C 2b 28. A 2f 29. C 2g 30. D 4d 31. D 3b 32. C 3b 33. B 2d 34. D 2d 35. C 3b 36. D 3b 37. B 2g 38. A 3b 39. B 4a 40. B 4b 41. B 2d 42. D 5a 43. D 4a 44. B 5a 45. B 3b 46. C 5b 47. B 5d 48. A 3c 49. B 5a 50. B 5a 51. C 6d 52. D 3c 53. C 6a 54. A 2g 55. A 6a 56. C 2d 57. B 4c 58. A 6b 59. A 4c 60. D 2e 61. A 2e 62. C 6d 63. D 3c 64. B 5c 65. B 5c 66. A 6c 67. A 6e 68. D 2c 69. D 6a 70. C 6c

Original URL
http://holtmcdougal.hmhco.com/hm_data/pdf/states/MS/28204_HRW_MS_BIO.pdf